Say that Mary, Queen of Scots had begat a son by François II of France around July of 1560, and then been widowed per OTL later that December. We'll refer to the son as Henrii III (christened: Henrii James). As the queen mother of France, would she likely consider remarriage?
Any child she bore after this point, especially of royal blood, may pose a threat to her French son's Scottish inheritance.
If you consider another post I did where Mary wed the Archduke Charles II of Inner Austria, I'd like to say she might consider this as another potential match, but would Charles agree to marry her with her own heir-apparent already in the cradle?
Any child she bore after this point, especially of royal blood, may pose a threat to her French son's Scottish inheritance.
If you consider another post I did where Mary wed the Archduke Charles II of Inner Austria, I'd like to say she might consider this as another potential match, but would Charles agree to marry her with her own heir-apparent already in the cradle?
Last edited: