If the Red Army defeated Poland in 1920, taking control over at least all of former Russian and Austrian Poland, (and possibly all interwar Poland including Posen and the corridor), how bloody would the process of consolidating Communist rule have been?
I leave it open as to whether Poland becomes a Communist-ruled satellite of the Soviet Union or actually becomes a constituent republic of the Soviet Union.
Should we expect Poland to experience a brutal collectivization in the late 1920s early 1930s? On the one hand, that is what Ukraine experienced, on the other hand, when Poland did become Communist in OTL it did not have such radical policies in the countryside.
Should we expect deaths related to actions of the Communist police state in Poland be at all comparable to Poland's wartime losses in OTL.
If there is a WWII fought over Central Europe even in this ATL, is it likely to be more or less bloody for the region's inhabitants than OTL's WWII?
Why so?
I leave it open as to whether Poland becomes a Communist-ruled satellite of the Soviet Union or actually becomes a constituent republic of the Soviet Union.
Should we expect Poland to experience a brutal collectivization in the late 1920s early 1930s? On the one hand, that is what Ukraine experienced, on the other hand, when Poland did become Communist in OTL it did not have such radical policies in the countryside.
Should we expect deaths related to actions of the Communist police state in Poland be at all comparable to Poland's wartime losses in OTL.
If there is a WWII fought over Central Europe even in this ATL, is it likely to be more or less bloody for the region's inhabitants than OTL's WWII?
Why so?