Why would the Netherlands succeed from Burgundy? A possibility could be that the people there were tired of French majority rule.
WorldRaj tribute thread
- Thread starter Bob Hope
- Start date
Were they even under Burgundian rule in the first place?
Yes, they were under Burgundian rule in OTL from 1384 to 1482.
In OTL Charles of Gelderland contested the title with Charles V, conquering and inheriting much of the Netherlands.
IRL but in this scenario I guess it depends when Burgundy became a FK.
Before 1500, then the answer is no, after, then they rebelled and later married into the Kingdoms.
Maybe Charles of Gelderland is successful in his attempts ITTL, with the United Provinces being founded earlier than in OTL.
Another option was Henry III of France.
Of course, in TTL, the ruler of England and France are the same person.
In regards to this, I suggest that the Omni-Monarch becomes the de jure head of state, but with a hereditary governor position - e.g. the house of Orange, or the house of Egmond (the family of the aforementioned Charles of Gelderland).
QE1 was offered it because of war with Spain, ITTL QE1 rules Spain and Burgundy is FK.
Constitutional Monarchic Republic of the United Netherlands? Stadtholder Egmond? - its actually the deal Charles V offered but Charles of Gelderland refused it in OTL.
Perhaps they were doing so well, militarily, that this was offered as a compromise peace. Brabant partitioned and keep captured Brazilian lands for acknowledgement of O-M as ruler.
No one wins all the time, it's how you turn the loss to your advantage.
It is possible Burgundy was not at the time the United Provinces joined.
I would suggest that the position of FK is a more modern development, when the Seven Crowns were in their "conquer EVERYTHING" mode.
I like that idea and I think that concept (Omni-Monarch is head of state but has a hereditary governor position) can be exported to other places.
I argee with that.