Lateknight
Banned
Would India be forever divided without europeon colization or is a way to unite the sub continent without it being conquered?
But that isn't unified.
Not arguably Nepal at all, Nepal is not Indian in the slightest. Sri Lanka is the third member India, not Nepal.
Without European colonization there is no Indian identity and no one wants one, instead you have Bengals, Punjabs, Gujarati, etc. Sure some of these groups might under the same government, but they wouldn't be Indian. Also a northern State including Pakistan would be a Islamic state ruled by Muslims, probably the Mughals. And an Islamic state would try to identify with the Islamic culture not an Indian one (which wouldn't even exist). Posters are't calling for a balkization of nations, but of cultures and ethnicities which would happen. Today there are still lots of different ethnicities, but the primary culture is the Indian one that has been developed.
The view that India wasn't a nation prior to the British is a little misguided. While certainly there wasn't a fully centralised authority by the time of the British ascendancy, I would argue that a proto-nation had already formed underneath the banner of the Mughals.
Many 'independent' kingdoms were actually formally feudatories of the Mughal Empire, and in many territories the rulers sought the authority of Delhi to confirm their rule, even if this was only a rubber stamp. There was a lot of power in controlling the Emperor as well, just as the Scindia of Gwalior would do as a Maratha.
To define the scope of the Mughal legitimacy; at its height, Tanjore, Mysore and so on were confirmed as vassals under Aurangzeb, but even as they weakened, other rulers such as Tipu Sultan continued to confirm the Mughal paramountcy. The Nizams and Nawabs of course continued to function under the theoretical Mughal in Delhi, and the reason I'm pointing this out is because it had a lot to do with how the British managed to take over India.
The British tended to confirm those rulers that were vassals because then no ruler could claim too much loyalty; and of course legally since they were always vassals after 1857, their formal loyalty simply transferred from Delhi to Calcutta.
Now you might say, there's a lot of 'formals' and 'de jures' in there versus what was actually happening on the ground, but I'd point out that legitimacy was very important in Indian politics, and was one of the biggest reasons no Princely States were able to break away. Even the Nizam, for example, was stunted because the British didn't want to give him a royal title. Indeed, no Prince had a royal title, or were ever referred to in any other terms than 'princely' or'native'.
The problem with the Marathas, is that their myth exceeds their goals. Maratha policy tended to be centred on Maharashtra, and the rest of India tended to be raiding ground for those princes. Many like Scindia and Holkar were actually forced from returning to their homeland as they wished to do to continue ruling. And in many cases even the Marathas acted like agents of the Mughal government in Delhi (in Mysore, for example, where both sardeshmukhi and Mughal taxes were both levied).
In terms of pan-Indian sentiment, they just didn't have it; the Marathas were actually less liked in Delhi than the Afghans, since they were prone to pillage without discipline, whereas the Afghans inflicted heavy punishments on their own looters.
I would argue that these actors would continue to function in an independent India, but that if the Nizams or Nawabs took control it would certainly resemble a Shogunate situation over a total break from Delhi. The Emperor did hold a lot of symbolic power.
In that case we should have expected Germany to be a hodgepodge of different principalities and duchies, etc. I don't think using pre-industralization era examples (or, as in the case of Greece, 2,400 year old examples) works. Note, I'm not saying India would be unified, I'm agreeing with everyone else here in saying it probably wouldn't be, but I also disagree that there wouldn't be a consolidation into a few major states.I somewhat believe that it would have remained a somewhat disunited bunch of empires, kingdoms, principalities ,city states, and fiefdoms with many different languages, a hodgepodge of faiths and only the geographic umbrella of being in the Indian subcontinent having any commonality.
Consider that before it was conquered by outside empires, Greece had one basic language and faith yet it was comprised of hundreds of city states.
The collapse of the Carolingian Empire and collapse of the Roman Emire were proof that the European Union was unlikely. Both cases showed how hugely different European regions were from each other.The Mughal Collapse and the Marathas failings is proof that Indian unification is unlikely. Both cases showed how hugely different Indian states were from each other. The British did a lot to truly bring an Indian identity together as imperialism did in many other places.
I'm unsure as to how Nepal playing a role in Indian politics makes it of the Indian culture, but honestly Nepal was cultural mixing pot of several different cultures.
In that case we should have expected Germany to be a hodgepodge of different principalities and duchies, etc. I don't think using pre-industralization era examples (or, as in the case of Greece, 2,400 year old examples) works. Note, I'm not saying India would be unified, I'm agreeing with everyone else here in saying it probably wouldn't be, but I also disagree that there wouldn't be a consolidation into a few major states.
Nepal is Hindu yes, but the majority of the population is Mongoloid, not Aryan or Dravidian.
And Nepalese is an Indo-European Language.
So is Hindi and all the other Northern Indian languages, indeed Nepali is also, alongside Hindi-Urdu, a member of the Indo-Aryan languages of the Northern portion of the Subcontinent.
You might as well argue that, since Pashto, Kurdish, Tajik and Balochi are also, alongside Persian, members of the Indo-Iranian languages of the Western portion of the Asian continent, everywhere that speaks these languages should be part of a single unified Iran. Nepal is Indian in the same way that Tajikistan is Iranian- it just isn't. There are plenty of other factors to think about...
He was implying that Hindi and the North Indian languages were'nt Indo-European languages, I was correcting him, not implying any sort of language family equals unification idea.
The Mughal Collapse and the Marathas failings is proof that Indian unification is unlikely. Both cases showed how hugely different Indian states were from each other. The British did a lot to truly bring an Indian identity together as imperialism did in many other places.
I'm unsure as to how Nepal playing a role in Indian politics makes it of the Indian culture, but honestly Nepal was cultural mixing pot of several different cultures.