ManintheField
Banned
I have to confess that I don't read enough metallurgy (law, physics and economy are simply to interesting), but I was wery very intrigued by ComradeHuyles's post - if steel is possible that early in Africa, why isn't it possible in Rome? It hasn't to be developed in 10 years - but I don't think hundred or two hundred years are that implausible.
Well, first of all, what they are making in Africa at that time is a form of high carbon steel. That's not what you want for early industrial steam engines: It's way too expensive before the specifics of something like the Bessemer process are invented. You need very low-carbon wrought iron of sufficient tensile strength to take the pressures involved in a steam boiler. That is the kind of thing that takes a long time to come about because the techniques necessary to get improved mechanical and metallurgical properties out of old materials like iron are developed through a process of trial and error over centuries.
Getting carbon steel cheap enough for use in pressure vessels is what is at the end of the development process that things like Wootz or Damascus steel are at the beginning of. That is, you already need to have a kind of industrial revolution under way before it's realistic to get cheap, machine-economical steel produced on industrial scales.
Things like the invention of methods of generating and working various metals are the 'sudden advances' I talked about. The invention of processes for making carbon steel period is a 'sudden advance' that can be thought of as a speed-up in the otherwise relatively slow process of pre-industrial metallurgical advance. However, sudden advances just mean you now have another branch of practical metallurgy to advance along, so introducing carbon steel into classical Rome isn't going to get you an industrial revolution, it'll just get you better weapons, utensils, and other things it is economical to use carbon steel for before it can be made in industrial quantities.
And? Did I said that Rome will discover the steam engine before being able to make appropriate metals? Until now, they have only the Pneumatic Automaton, a precursor of the atmospheric engine, itself completly inefficient and wasteful - the Romans are not going to make the jump within 10 years, but I'm not thinking it will take 1000 years.
It depends how long it takes Roman iron manufacturers to start running out of trees to turn into charcoal, really. Considering how much of Europe's old primeval forests are left in Roman times, we're looking at quite the stretch of wood to be cut down and converted before anyone gets curious about alternatives.
Also, you're really kind of barking up the wrong tree when it comes to your concentration on steam engines. While they were important to the production of coal, which was important to the manufacture of iron, the real breaking open of the industrial revolution in Britain happened in textiles. Textile factories didn't start making use of steam power, for the most part, until the middleish part of the 19th century. The First Industrial Revolution happened with water power, not steam.
I don't think that it is hard to teach the Romans the concept of paper currency - after all they knew promissory notes, and paper currency is only an advancment of these. What they need is a method duplicate paper currency (a printing press) - let's see how fast they can develop that.
It is actually pretty complicated. Paper currency took hold in Restoration era Britain as the result of several legal advances, as much as anything else. While the Romans certainly had checks (which implies some kind of deposit banking going on), and I think I've even read they had a deposit-based form of fractional reserve banking going on, but I don't know that I've ever seen them any kind of note being indefinitely endorsable/payable to a bearer. This is actually a pretty big leap, even the British had to have an act of Parliament to get the courts to recognize the first bank notes.
But may I rise the question to whom the issue of paper money should be permitted? State would be most logical - but is this rational from a capitalist point of view?
I don't see what's particularly logical about it. 'Because that's the way we do it today' is falliciously teleological. The First Industrial Revolution happened in the back of a financial system that used as hand-to-hand currency bank notes emitted by private bankers which were redeemable for metal coins. Even the Bank of England was, at the time, a privately owned and operated institution with no formal public obligations or currency management duties.
If the Roman state takes over paper currency issue, it's more likely to replicate the Chinese experience, where the state monopolized paper currency issue soon after its initial invention under the Song and totally ruined the first paper currency ever, eventually driving it from existence under the Mongol Yuan dynasty. No conception of macroeconomic management existed prior to the 19th or 20th centuries (depending on how you want to define your terms), so state issued currencies were always a finance mechanism/mark of sovereignty.
It's telling to note that proto- and early industrial Britain experienced a period of private coinage, when the Royal Mint completely failed to supply small coinage over the course of the 18th century and a series of private mints opened in defiance of the Mint's legal monopoly.
Publicly issued paper currency is not only not necessary for the emergence of an industrial revolution, it's probably harmful.
First millenium...
Being Roman meant much more than being a bigoted conservative - it also meant to adopt innovations if a Roman thought they were going to help the Empire.
The Romans were tremendously enthusiastic adopters of military innovations and incredibly strident conservatives on every other front of society. It really would be hard to get Roman aristocrats to become tinkerers of any sort, and equally or even more difficult to get them to imagine applying the results of their tinkering to economic production.
Then again, you could say a lot of the same things about British aristocrats and be 100% right. In many ways the Industrial Revolution happened in Britain in spite of the establishment, rather than because of anything it did. Same thing would have to happen in Rome, with the 'little' people, the plebians (rich and poor) driving economic growth underneath the noses of the high-born. Why they didn't produce an industrial revolution IOTL is a pretty deep question to ask.