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NOTE: The implications of this scenario would have effects past 1900 but since Winston Churchill was born 26 years prior to 1900 I have decided to place it in this category.

I was trying to envision a scenario involving Churchill becoming a member of the Labour party (tricky, I know) given the fact that he arguably was, especially in his youth and early career rather liberal for his time (I know some, as in many, would argue against him ever approaching anything liberal) even though he was throughout most of his life an avid anti-socialist, which he considered the labour party to be.

Anyway a quick look on Wikipedia to try and see the origins of his anti-labour stance led me to this qoute in the "Political Ideology",

"In Jenkins' view, Churchill's privileged background prevented him from empathising with the poor, and instead he "sympathize[d] with them from on high."

So my question this is, how could it posited that Churchill come from a poor background in spite of his aristocratic and noble roots?

I know many families of noble descent have endured some levels of poverty despite their genteel origins.

Perhaps a bad business deal here and there in Winstons family tree could lead to his families reduced circumstances by his birth without effecting his ancestry?
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