One of the lesser known points about William is that he wrote laws regarding the slave trade, more specifically that the sale of people outside the lands under English Law or Protection
What if this was expanded to no sale of anyone, or purchase - and the expected liberation of all slaves in holding. To give somewhat lenient terms (and not require the purchase of slaves by the Crown) - all slave holders may continue to own their slaves for three years more, or if younger than 15, until their 18th birthday.
IOTL William required freed slaves to be granted arms - specifically a sword (and/or) lance. What if we stated that slave-owners did not have to provide the sword, instead the Crown would provide a weapon (sword, war-pick, etc).
What would the impacts of all this be, since this would be that in 19 years (to include pregnant slaves and their children), there would be no legal slaves in the UK? Since I've included lands under protection, if we see colonisation of North America, would the slave trade be reduced?
What if this was expanded to no sale of anyone, or purchase - and the expected liberation of all slaves in holding. To give somewhat lenient terms (and not require the purchase of slaves by the Crown) - all slave holders may continue to own their slaves for three years more, or if younger than 15, until their 18th birthday.
IOTL William required freed slaves to be granted arms - specifically a sword (and/or) lance. What if we stated that slave-owners did not have to provide the sword, instead the Crown would provide a weapon (sword, war-pick, etc).
What would the impacts of all this be, since this would be that in 19 years (to include pregnant slaves and their children), there would be no legal slaves in the UK? Since I've included lands under protection, if we see colonisation of North America, would the slave trade be reduced?