No more difficult or unlikely than for a post-Anglo Saxon monarch.
Would it require changes and consolidation of power? Yes. But that was just as true for the difference between late Capetian France and absolute monarchy France.
I don't deny that, but I do deny the idea that the Anglo-Saxon monarchs would really want to assert absolute power. After all, what's the point? The Witenagemot elects the kings, and will thus almost fully support them. They are vastly wealthy
(EDIT: If still part of the House of Godwin) and can easily convince the great lords to back them.
Why would they want absolute power?
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