Disagree. The South was in the moral wrong regardless of slavery. They were trying to take the ball and go home because they no longer had their finger on the pulse of (what was then considered) democratic government. This is a dangerous precedent to set, and the North was fully justified in stamping it out.
Trying to leave a construction you deem unfit to represent your interests is exactly what secession
is. It's how the USA came to exist. But then, you already deemed William of Orange and the Founding Fathers traitors as well, so, yeah... regardless of whether you call treason 'not always evil', the fact that you see self-determination as 'treason' and consider "taking your ball and going home" a
bad thing demonstrates your world-view. Let's just say it fundamentally clashes with everything I hold sacred.
You may be right to say the Constitution is legally binding while the Declaration is not, but as I will demonstrate below, the Constitution doesn't actually back your claims. So the whole question of whether secession is treason ultimately comes back around to being a moral question. Do people, regardless of other issues, fundamentally have the right to form their own countries if they so wish, and in so doing, split off from whatever government previously held sway over them? My answer is
yes. My answer is furthermore that anyone who says
no is morally defective.
I would point you to the Supremacy Clause, which clearly places the states under the authority of the Federal government, and makes it clear that they are no longer sovereign.
You are in error in a very crucial way. The Supremacy Clause places Federal authority above state authority, but then, so does the tenth Amendment. Subsidiarity. It does
not somehow make it so that the federal government can do anything it wants, and the states have to just obey. In fact, that's what the Tenth Amendment makes clear. The scope of the Federal power is limited (and explicitly so!) to the powers granted by the Constitution. So Congress can regulate interstate commerce, per the Constitution. And the Supremacy Clause ensures that while the states can make their own laws, none of them may conflict with, for instance, Federal law regulating interstate commerce. The reading that this makes the states powerless and "no longer sovereign" is something you add to it. That's not in the Constitution. So that, too, becomes a matter understanding the concept of "sovereignty". Well. Let's make no mistake about it: opponents of the Constititution were quite fearful to lose their sovereignty back in the day! But they were assured, by such promonent Federalists as Hamilton, Adams and Madison (who was at that time still in their faction) that the Constitution was a compact, into which the sovereign states would enter voluntarily, for their mutual betterment. Now, you may well say that this wasn't legally binding, either-- but since the Constitution itself neither confirms nor denies the exact sovereignty of the states, our best guide to the truth is the understanding of those who adopted the Constitution.
They clearly felt that they were forming a "more perfect Union"... of sovereign states.
Now, "sovereign" doesn't mean they could do whatever they wanted. The Constitution limits the states, because within a Union, you can't have all members acting in whatever way they like. That's crystal clear. But it's equally clear that the Union is
voluntary. The idea that states lose all sovereignty is patently false (or there would be no Tenth Amendment), and the idea that they can't leave the Union is equally false. If that were the case, it would be one of the things prohibited to the states by the Constitution.
as well as Section 10 of Article I, which forbids states from making alliances, waging war, et cetera, all of which was done by the Rebellion.
Another severe error, and derived from the first one. The Constitution only applies to states
within the Union. By leaving the Union, you automatically ensure that the Constitution stops applying to your state. Since the CSA was formed by already seceded states, and no state was even allowed to join unless it had first exited the USA, Section 10 of Article I simply did not apply to them.
To argue that Section 10 of Article I did apply, you must first prove that secession was illegal and thus invalid. This particular argument does not prove that, and in fact hinges on it already being proven-- which you have not done.
Furthermore, the ideological foundation for secession, compact theory, was itself invalid according to the U.S. Supreme Court, which further emphasized the non-sovereign nature of the states under the Constitution, as well as noting that the Constitution was a product of the people, not the states.
Yeah, Texas v. White. Which was a 5-3 decision, just four years after the war, and three of the majority were justices appointed by Lincoln. A simple case of "the winner writes the history books" (or in this case, the legal decisions). There was literally no way that any court, at that point, was going to say "
oh, yeah, secession was actually legal and our government basically committed a bunch of war crimes by forcibly suppressing it". Understandable, but still a blatantly political verdict. More on that below.
Considering that this was the legal underpinnings for what the South did, and that the South never made an attempt to appeal to the Constitution or go through a legal process by which they could leave the Union, it renders much of what you have said moot. If the South thought that they were legally justified in what they did, why not go through a legal process to achieve it? Answer: the South had no interest in being legally justified.
Except that unless you can actually prove that secession was prohibited by the Constitution (which you have not done), secession
was a legal process. Also, after the war, Jefferson Davis did want his day in court, to argue his position. He wanted to refuse any possible pardon, even. They ultimately dropped the whole case against him, just to prevent the possibility that he might get absolved on precisely the basis that secession wasn't illegal. Nowadays, there are people who like to argue that the procesution was dropped "so he wouldn't get a platform to spout his ideas"-- but that's evidently nonsense, since no other such platforms were ever denied to former Confederate leaders. The fact is, they knew damn well he had a point (this was
before Texas v. White), and were scared he'd be vindicated. He certainly believed it, as he was furious that he didn't get a chance to argue his case. (Indeed, a high-profile trial of Jefferson Davis would have made it much, much harder to just brush off secession as 'null', since he'd be very vocally arguing his exact position-- which was strong.)
They just wanted to own black people, and to continue that ownership in their minds it was best for them to leave the Union.
Now you conflate the legality of an act with the intention behind it. That's just poppycock. Nobody says their motives were good (at least, nobody here, to my knowledge). That doesn't make the instrument illegal. Basically, you denouncing secession
in general as illegal because it was done
in this specific case to preserve slavery is like me calling all e-mail evil because some idiot sends me a virus one time. It makes no sense. The slavery aspect is specific to this one case, so it cannot be used as an argument against secession in general. It can't even be used as an argument against
this secession, since it's the slavery aspect and not the secession aspect that is faulty. (In other words: if the North had seceded from the South, their motives would have been untainted-- but by your logic, they'd still be traitors. In reality, they'd just be implementing their right to self-determination, albeit with far more noble motives than the South in OTL.)
All in all, the difference between treason and secession is semantics.
No. It's really not. You haven't proven that it is, you have only claimed it. My view is that regardless of the case-specific particulars of any specific instance, secession itself is simply an expression of self-determination and completely in line with the long Western tradition regarding both both ethics and law, going - as I pointed out - all the way back to Saint Augustine. My backing for that claim
is that entire tradition. Your claim is that secession is treason. Your backing for that has thus far been... the fact that you say so.
Do observe that there are at least two main arguments going on here, which you seemingly conflate.
-- First, there is the matter of whether secession itself is an act of treason (I contend it isn't, and I can back that up by a wide array of precedents going back centuries). This is a general point, and thus does not refer to laws. It is an
ethical question. This is actually the most interesting one, at least for me, and the most fundamental one. It's also the one where you have not even
attempted to back up your claims with any kind of support.
-- Second, there is the question whether the secession of the Southern states was
legally treason. Your arguments in favour of that claim have thus far been lacking.
Note that even if you did prove the second one (which I don't think you can), I'll still just refer to the first one. That is: if any law outlaws secession, I hold that it's an unethical law. The very existence of such a law is a sound ethical reason to secede
at once from the regime that has implemented it. In itself, a law forbidding secession justifies secession.