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Inspired by this interesting thread. Let's assume that ITTL, the Free French don't exist because De Gaulle takes a German bullet in May 17, 1940. Let's also assume that Vichy France ends up declaring war to Britain and the USSR in 1940-41, and being a cobelligerant member of the Axis at the very least as eager and active as Hungary and Romania, if not quite possibly as Fascist Italy. I leave it up to you the definition of this second PoD. I tentatively would suggest a combination of a stronger French reaction to Mers-el-Kabir, Hitler making more of a concerned effort to gain the full cooperation of Vichy France in the Mediterranean in late 1940, instead of his futile efforts with Franco, and the hardcore philo-Nazi fascists getting more of an early upper hand within the Vichy regime. The French Resistance ends up being a major force once the Allies set up foot on French mainland, just as it happened to Italian Resistance, but no earlier. How would this influence the course of WWII and the post-war world ?
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