Say that the inhabitants of the Albaicin and in Murcia and Valencia join in the revolt, while the Revolt of Aragon that occurred in 1591 OTL happens twenty years earlier.
Plus, the Ottomans send significant support (thousands or more troops) directly from Constantinople, as well as directing Uluch Ali Pasha in Algiers to send additional troops from the Maghreb.
Muhammad ibn Umayyah is also a much more capable ruler and is not assassinated.
What happens now? Umayyad restoration as Ottoman vassals?
Plus, the Ottomans send significant support (thousands or more troops) directly from Constantinople, as well as directing Uluch Ali Pasha in Algiers to send additional troops from the Maghreb.
Muhammad ibn Umayyah is also a much more capable ruler and is not assassinated.
What happens now? Umayyad restoration as Ottoman vassals?