The failed attempt to marry Frederick, Prince of Wales (son of George II), to Lady Diana Spencer (a distant relative of the famous one) was an unfortunate lost opportunity for the Hanoverians to become British. Instead, because Walpole objected, Frederick married some other German Princess.
Based on Royal genealogies, approximate percentages of British (English, Scottish, Welsh) ancestry in monarchs
James VI & I - 48%
Charles I - 24%
Charles II, James VII & II - 12%
Mary II, Anne - 56% (their mother was the last ethnically British spouse of a British monarch until the Queen Mother almost 3 centuries later)
William III, George I, the Old Pretender (James VIII & III) - 6%
George II, Bonnie Prince Charlie (Charles III) Cardinal Henry, Duke of York (Henry IX) - 3%
Frederick, Prince of Wales (1.5%)
George III through George VI, all less than 1%
Elizabeth II - 46%
Charles III - 23%
Prince William (William V) - 53%
Prince George (George VII) - 77%
So the last primarily British monarch died in 1714, for 192 years (1760-1952), the monarch was less than 1% British, and the current heir to the throne, while over half British, he’s still less British than Queen Anne.
Prince William, Duke of Gloucester was 28% British. (son of Queen Anne and Prince George of Denmark, who, incidentally, is part of the same patrilineage as the current King Charles III - the House of Oldenburg)
Had William and Mary had children, they would have been 31% British.
Had Bonnie Prince Charlie had children with his wife (who had one British great-grandparent), they would have been 8% British.
Lady Diana (b. 1710) was fully British. Her heir with Frederick would have been 51% British. Do you think this would increase the acceptance of the Hanoverians among normal Britons and weaken the Jacobite cause?
Since if you look at how the dates line up, the Jacobite kings would have been more British than their Hanoverian contemporary from 1727-1807. It’s sad that religious bigotry led to the importation of a foreign dynasty and court. It’s said in Scotland that when they went to bring George I to Britain, he was digging in his garden, planting kale and leeks without any hose or breeches on. Hardly behavior I would consider Royal.
Would Frederick marrying Diana likely lead to a precedent of marrying British nobility instead of foreign royalty? Or would we just watch the British percentage of the monarch cut in half every generation again?
Based on Royal genealogies, approximate percentages of British (English, Scottish, Welsh) ancestry in monarchs
James VI & I - 48%
Charles I - 24%
Charles II, James VII & II - 12%
Mary II, Anne - 56% (their mother was the last ethnically British spouse of a British monarch until the Queen Mother almost 3 centuries later)
William III, George I, the Old Pretender (James VIII & III) - 6%
George II, Bonnie Prince Charlie (Charles III) Cardinal Henry, Duke of York (Henry IX) - 3%
Frederick, Prince of Wales (1.5%)
George III through George VI, all less than 1%
Elizabeth II - 46%
Charles III - 23%
Prince William (William V) - 53%
Prince George (George VII) - 77%
So the last primarily British monarch died in 1714, for 192 years (1760-1952), the monarch was less than 1% British, and the current heir to the throne, while over half British, he’s still less British than Queen Anne.
Prince William, Duke of Gloucester was 28% British. (son of Queen Anne and Prince George of Denmark, who, incidentally, is part of the same patrilineage as the current King Charles III - the House of Oldenburg)
Had William and Mary had children, they would have been 31% British.
Had Bonnie Prince Charlie had children with his wife (who had one British great-grandparent), they would have been 8% British.
Lady Diana (b. 1710) was fully British. Her heir with Frederick would have been 51% British. Do you think this would increase the acceptance of the Hanoverians among normal Britons and weaken the Jacobite cause?
Since if you look at how the dates line up, the Jacobite kings would have been more British than their Hanoverian contemporary from 1727-1807. It’s sad that religious bigotry led to the importation of a foreign dynasty and court. It’s said in Scotland that when they went to bring George I to Britain, he was digging in his garden, planting kale and leeks without any hose or breeches on. Hardly behavior I would consider Royal.
Would Frederick marrying Diana likely lead to a precedent of marrying British nobility instead of foreign royalty? Or would we just watch the British percentage of the monarch cut in half every generation again?