WI the European powers fully put to use their colonial manpower during WW1?

What if the European powers, entente and axis both used their colonial manpower to the fullest and used them en masse on the battlefields?
 
How do the central powers get the man power from kamerun and tanganiyka to Europe in the face of the royal navy? Zeppelin?
 
How do the central powers get the man power from kamerun and tanganiyka to Europe in the face of the royal navy? Zeppelin?

They would be used locally. I don't know where the weapons and ammunition would come from to fully use that extra manpower. Perhaps the extra men are used to build fortifications and other engineering projects? The numbers of dead and wounded in Africa would be a lot higher, especially among the Africans.
 
Most of Germany's colonies were quickly seized in WWI, so they wouldn't have a chance to use any colonial manpower.
 
Germany would need to have control of the seas to ship troops from its colonies (and to be able to defend them as well). Extremely unlikely without a POD before 1900s at the latest. The Royal Navy was the undisputed ruler of the seas in this period, as Germany would painfully learn during the naval blockade.
 
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