Totally implausible. It couldn't be enforced and would be far too large an acquisition. Sweden's own population wasn't very large. It would also upset the balance of power in the region.I saw somebody mention it in a thread a while back and was wondering a) if it was plausible and b) what the effects would be.
They meant that Sweden gets Prussia, not the other way around.Why Sweden would be given to Prussia and would Prussia even want that? And even if Sweden woudl be given to Prussia, it will has hellish job to keep that.
Nobody wanted a foreign elector? Well, they had plenty of foreign electors all the time, the King of Britain being the most famous, but also the Elector of Saxony was also for a time King of Poland as well. One can claim in both cases it was German families over foreign lands, but in both cases Poland and Britain were stronger nations and had more sway over the King than the German lands those kings came from.First of all, the Duchy of Prussia (East Prussia) was a vassal to the Polish crown and not part of the Holy Roman Empire. While Sweden had invaded the region and held ports and customs points in it 1629-1635 as part of the armstice between Poland and Sweden, keeping all of it was completely out of the question.
If we are talking Brandenburg, it is very, very unlikely. Brandeburg is an elector in the Holy Roman Empire, and none in Germany wanted a foreign elector. Secondly, the reason Sweden was awarded Vorpommern and Bremen was that both those regions has ruling houses that had become extinct - awarding them to someone else was thus possible. That was not possible with Brandenburg, which had a healthy ruling house and was on the winning side of the Treaty of Westphalia, gaining among other thigns Halberstadt and Hinterpommern.
Nobody wanted a foreign elector? Well, they had plenty of foreign electors all the time, the King of Britain being the most famous, but also the Elector of Saxony was also for a time King of Poland as well. One can claim in both cases it was German families over foreign lands, but in both cases Poland and Britain were stronger nations and had more sway over the King than the German lands those kings came from.
I could be wrong but wasn't the elector of Brandenburg at the time Father in law of Gustavus Adolphus?
Did you read my post or just the first sentence and get all huffy and write a response to which I already addressed your concern?In both those cases, a German Elector gained another throne, not the other way around.
Did you read my post or just the first sentence and get all huffy and write a response to which I already addressed your concern?
That's twice in nearly a thousand years. The Hanovers ruled both Hanover and Britain for less than a century and the same goes for Saxony-Poland.Nobody wanted a foreign elector? Well, they had plenty of foreign electors all the time, the King of Britain being the most famous, but also the Elector of Saxony was also for a time King of Poland as well. One can claim in both cases it was German families over foreign lands, but in both cases Poland and Britain were stronger nations and had more sway over the King than the German lands those kings came from.