WI: Spanish Romance without Arabic Invasion

One of the interesting linguistic PoDs that I usually think of, as a Spaniard, is what a Spain-based romance language might look like without the Arabic invasion of 711. Off the top of my head, toponyms, terms for agriculture and foodstuff and a few expression would obviously differ. But I am wondering more about its linguistics (hard to guess, I know), and how it might have related to other languages, or if it was likely for it to develop a broader segment of dialects, like the Oïl/Oc languages.

Also, the possibilities of Basque surviving improve or worsen?
 
Well, for starters, the longitudinal dialectal regions are butterflied away, and it would probably look a lot more as center/expansion pattern.
It's hard to really tell how dialects would appear ITTL and even less their shape, giving our knowledge of late Hispano-Romance is virtually non-existant. We could assume that northern dialects and linguistical ensemble would mostly survive, ut their evolution in Spain would be significantly different. For instance, it's possible that Occitano-Romance might remain stuck in Old Catalonia (although no Arab conquest might mean, depending on the situation, a Frankish partial takeover, so it's not out of the table), and that Galician might not extend south ITTL.
I think a good bet would be a bigger extension of a Spanish language based on southern Hispano-Romance speeches (so a mix between "Mozarabic" dialects and Asturo-Leonese), with an important dialectal differenciation of Pyrenean and Cantabrian speeches, due their important peripheral situation.

Also, the possibilities of Basque surviving improve or worsen?
I'd say improve, giving they're not fighting for regional dominance with Romance polities : I don't think there would be much room for Basque being more used than IOTL, but maybe a more lasting presence in IOTL Navarre and Upper Ebro basin.
 
...and that Galician might not extend south ITTL.
So what kind of Romance dialect/language would emerge in Portugal south of Porto in this case?

I think a good bet would be a bigger extension of a Spanish language based on southern Hispano-Romance speeches (so a mix between "Mozarabic" dialects and Asturo-Leonese), with an important dialectal differenciation of Pyrenean and Cantabrian speeches, due their important peripheral situation.
I thought of certain percentage of such mix, actually.
 
So what kind of Romance dialect/language would emerge in Portugal south of Porto in this case?
Giving we don't know about particularities in this region (you could argue, rightfully that absence of proof isn't proof of the absence), my bet would be on *Spanish
 
I'd say improve, giving they're not fighting for regional dominance with Romance polities : I don't think there would be much room for Basque being more used than IOTL, but maybe a more lasting presence in IOTL Navarre and Upper Ebro basin.
I thought the Arab invasion was beneficial for the survival of Basque as it allowed the creation of an indipendent Basque based state after the rebellion against the Franks.
 
I thought the Arab invasion was beneficial for the survival of Basque as it allowed the creation of an indipendent Basque based state after the rebellion against the Franks.
Vasconic entities was firmly established as a political ensemble at this point (notably trough the dual dukedom of Aquitaine/Vasconia). The Arab conquest had as direct consequences to weaken it by forcing political relocation of Hispano-Romance centers in Cantabrian highlands directly neighbouring what was a peripheral area constantly at odds with Gothic power; and by leading to the crippling of Aquitain/Vascon ensemble and its infeodation to Peppinid/Carolingians at least for Transpyrenean Vasconia and Cispyrenean Vasconia until the early IXth.
You'd argue that the kingdom of Pampelune managed to be, briefly, a regional hegemon but nationalist rewriting of history aside, it can't be seriously considered as a Basque (R) kingdom : it was really a mix of Romance and Basque features.
 
Vasconic entities was firmly established as a political ensemble at this point (notably trough the dual dukedom of Aquitaine/Vasconia). The Arab conquest had as direct consequences to weaken it by forcing political relocation of Hispano-Romance centers in Cantabrian highlands directly neighbouring what was a peripheral area constantly at odds with Gothic power; and by leading to the crippling of Aquitain/Vascon ensemble and its infeodation to Peppinid/Carolingians at least for Transpyrenean Vasconia and Cispyrenean Vasconia until the early IXth.
You'd argue that the kingdom of Pampelune managed to be, briefly, a regional hegemon but nationalist rewriting of history aside, it can't be seriously considered as a Basque (R) kingdom : it was really a mix of Romance and Basque features.
But how would centers of Hispano-Romance power going north weaken the Basque institutions? I imagine it would lead to more influence but as far as I know the opposite is true as well, with Castillian having been influenced by Basque during this period and Aragonese as well.

In what way was Pamplona a mix of Romance and Basque features and why did it become so just a century after the Umayyad conquest? From what I understood the kingdom was created from a rejection of Frankish overlordship, I find weird it would be less Basque™ than Visogothic Vasconia.
 
But how would centers of Hispano-Romance power going north weaken the Basque institutions?
We're talking about language (I don't know about specific Basque institutions might be). It's quite simple : being a peripheral area mean you're not in the first line for undergoing cultural pressure. Neighbouring political and cultural centers mean you do : for every basque influence Hispano-Romance and Occitano-Romance recieved, you had a tenfold for Basque from these.

From what I understood the kingdom was created from a rejection of Frankish overlordship,
It was heavily built, like most non-Frankish ensemble in Carolingia, on local nobility and structures.

I find weird it would be less Basque™ than Visogothic Vasconia.
Ethnicity =/= Language =/= Culture.
 
We're talking about language (I don't know about specific Basque institutions might be). It's quite simple : being a peripheral area mean you're not in the first line for undergoing cultural pressure. Neighbouring political and cultural centers mean you do : for every basque influence Hispano-Romance and Occitano-Romance recieved, you had a tenfold for Basque from these.
Is that really the case? Well I understand that is a rough estimations but I really wonder if the influence was really that one sided during this period, especially if one considers some peculiar developments of Castillian as stemming from the Basque influence(f->h for example), I don't know what portions of Basque vocabulary is from Romance or how much of the Spanish is from Basque but even then it's hard to discern if it's directly from the influence of Asturians or if it's from Roman times or latter times.
Ethnicity =/= Language =/= Culture.
So in which of those 3 areas had Pamlona mixed features?
 
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