WI:Spanish Indonesia, Untouched Philippines

I am wondering what if the Spanish colonized Java, Nusa Tengarra and Sulawesi instead of the Philippines,Aside from Magellan not making his expedition and remaining in Ternate, I am thinking of a worse comuneros revolt which leads to the expulsion of the Habsburgs in Castile and Aragon because OTL Charles II does not became the ruler of HRE which leads to John III of Portugal gaining Aragon and Castile causing Castile to have no need to gain a route to Asia because Spain already has parts of Indonesia and later gains Java, Nusa Tengarra and Sulawesi.
 
Why did Spain conquer all of the Philippines?

Does anyone of you know the answer to this question? (I considered making a separate post, but when I saw this post I thought maybe some of those who had answered earlier knew the answer to my question.

I was reading shortly about the Spanish conquest of the Philippines. The author pointed out that Spain only earned profits from the colony because of the trading station in Manila, where they bought goods from other parts of Asia, especially China. They lost money on the rest of the colony. Still they did not stop to securing trading rights and to control a few fortified bridgheheads, they made themselves masters of all the easily accessible and densely populated areas along the coast. So why did they conquer those other areas, despite the fact that they lost money on it?
 
Does anyone of you know the answer to this question? (I considered making a separate post, but when I saw this post I thought maybe some of those who had answered earlier knew the answer to my question.

I was reading shortly about the Spanish conquest of the Philippines. The author pointed out that Spain only earned profits from the colony because of the trading station in Manila, where they bought goods from other parts of Asia, especially China. They lost money on the rest of the colony. Still they did not stop to securing trading rights and to control a few fortified bridgheheads, they made themselves masters of all the easily accessible and densely populated areas along the coast. So why did they conquer those other areas, despite the fact that they lost money on it?

It is because of the trade to china which was rich but there was also a Tobacco monopoly in Luzon and also due to the Acapulco-Manila trade.

That is why they did not give an effort on securing Mindanao.
 

Driftless

Donor
Would the Dutch attempt to colonize the Philippines(or a portion) or Formosa?

In that era, how connected were the cultures on the myriad islands?
 
Would the Dutch attempt to colonize the Philippines(or a portion) or Formosa?

In that era, how connected were the cultures on the myriad islands?

The Cultures of Luzon revolve around the Central Luzon plains that is what I know.

The Cultures of Visayas and Mindanao are connected since time immemorial.
 
Does anyone of you know the answer to this question? (I considered making a separate post, but when I saw this post I thought maybe some of those who had answered earlier knew the answer to my question.

I was reading shortly about the Spanish conquest of the Philippines. The author pointed out that Spain only earned profits from the colony because of the trading station in Manila, where they bought goods from other parts of Asia, especially China. They lost money on the rest of the colony. Still they did not stop to securing trading rights and to control a few fortified bridgheheads, they made themselves masters of all the easily accessible and densely populated areas along the coast. So why did they conquer those other areas, despite the fact that they lost money on it?

because they could. remember, we're talking about a nation that ended up conquering two large empires almost by accident, and whose ruler's motto at the time was "Plus Ultra". also, conversion!

the Philippines was more of a last hurrah for the conquistador generation, really. and their descendants ended up paying for it ever since.
 
That is what I am planning to do.

Either a worse communeros revolt or Miguel da Paz survives; that are two different points of divergence. You can't be driven out, if you didn't have the throne to begin with. ;)

Charles V may still win the imperial election ITTL, OTOH Philip the Handsome might survive longer. Without a chance of the Habsburgs getting the Iberian kingdoms (even a long shot IOTL) Maximilian will start arranging his son's succession to the Imperial Throne much sooner. So before either Charles or Ferdinand (if he's born ITTL) become emperor, you'll most likely have a reign of Philip the Handsome first.

@ Darthfanta: with the Habsburgs staying in the Empire, they probably will maintain different relations with their possessions in the Low Countries, which were amongst the most valuable they had, even more so ITTL. So no Dutch Revolt ITTL or not as we know it.

As for Italy, Castille-Aragon had interests in southern Italy and the Habsburgs in northern Italy and both of these were disputed/rivalled by France. Especially in Italy Castille-Aragon and Austria-Burgundy will still be natural allies.

As for the colonies, IMHO it's very likely that when the Spaniards and Portuguese won't colonize the OTL Philippines, latecomers France, England and Austria-Burgundy (with their Low Countries possessions Flanders, Brabant (Antwerpen), Holland, Zeeland etc.) will eventually.
 
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As for the colonies, IMHO it's very likely that when the Spaniards and Portuguese won't colonize the OTL Philippines, latecomers France, England and Austria-Burgundy (with their Low Counries possessions Flanders, Brabant (Antwerpen), Holland, Zeeland etc.) will eventually.

But those colonizers will not impose their religion to their new subjects like the Spanish did.
 
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