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In 1492 Castille-Aragon performed a trifecta, conquering Granada, expelling the Jews and backing Columbus.

What if they only did two parts of the trifecta, conquering Granada and backing Columbus, in the 1490s--and if expulsion if the Jews was postponed another 2 generations, about 60years, circa 1550?

Thus by the time the Spaniards do the expulsion, the foundations for Spanish America have been laid. Let's further assume Spain had no rule excluding Jews, at least Castilian ones, from the Americas.

How would the participation of Jews in early Spanish colonization have changed things? And, with expulsion being applied to Jews in Spain but also to Jews throughout the Spanish Empire, how do global migrations of Jews change?

Finally, a basic plausibility question- was the expulsion of 1492 the kind of thing that had to happen when it did, or not happen at all? Or is a scenario involving the same outcome decades later plausible?
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