The Philippines had declared their independence in 1898. WI Spain, after loosing the war with the US in mid 1898, instead of negotiating the treaty that ceded them (as well as Guam and Puerto Rico) to the US in 1898, quits the negotiating table and unilateraly declares Puerto Rico, Cuba and the Philippines independent once the American demands are made clear? In the case of Cuba and the Philippines, Spain would just be accepting previous declarations of independence made by Cubans and Filipinos.
Is this remotedly possible, or would not?
Is this remotedly possible, or would not?