WI: Russian partial mobilization during "July Crisis"

As we all well know, the July Crisis spiraled out of control and caused WW1.

The TL of events went like this:

-Austria threatens Serbia
-Serbia and Russia begin the "partial mobilization" of their armies
-Austria partially mobilizes and then declares war on Serbia
-Russia then "unilaterally declared – outside of the conciliation procedure provided by the Franco-Russian military agreements – partial mobilization against Austria-Hungary" (WIKI)
-Shortly afterwards Russia orders a general mobilization against Germany (no plans existed for partial mobilization)
-Germany declares war

What if Russia had partial mobilization plans? Of course everything can essentially unfold the same way, but is there any chance of the war being more of a regional nature?
 
It is unlikely that this would have changed anything. Germany could simply not accept Russia mobilizing against them at all without launching a war on France. The Schlieffen-Moltke plan required France to be functionally destroyed before Russia was ready for war. Germany would, in their minds, be resigning themselves to an unwinnable two front war if they allowed Russia to mobilize without attacking France.
 
I agree, Germany was in the unusual position in 1914 of having a single war plan, as opposed to have 4 plans in 1912 for example. So any crisis that results in war results in a massive attack on France.
 
I also agree. I tend to agree with the theory that interprets Germany's actions in the July Crisis as stemming from a belief and fear that Russia wanted war. The German goverment percieved Russia's actions in the Balkans and their military buildup as indicative of a desire for a European conflict. And if Russia wants war, then war will happen. Therefore it is better to have the war sooner than to have it later, if it must be had at all, which it must if, as they believed, another nation wants it to occur. A partial Russian mobilization does nothing to counter that line of thinking; indeed it exacerbates it by playing into the idea that Russia was seeking a war on the best terms. So I would say Germany reacts just as IOTL and things essentially follow OTL from there.
 
To be fair, Russia did want war. They propped up Serbia, schemed with France, and rallied their armies to march.
One shouldn't really refer to Czarist Russia as a single monolithic entity. The way the Annexation Crisis of 1908 came to being and how it was perceived by the different and competing factions of the Russian elite tells a lot of the dysfunctional nature of the post-1905 Romanov regime. By 1914 there were key Russian decisionmakers who were willing to risk war, and others who did their utmost to prevent it.
 
Is it possible to limit the war to Russia vs A-H vs Serbia? It seems to me that if one side starts losing, then Germany or France will jump in, but that still might take many months to happen.
 
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