To keep it short, it was an earlier Great Northern War and Russia was fighting for the same goals, exit to the Baltic sea, influence in the same region, etc. What effect does their victory have in this scenario and in the long run since the goal was achieved more than 150 years earlier?
I presume that they are better prepared to bounce back from the famine of 1601 -1603 and Time of Troubles and maybe even achieve earlier conquest of Ukraine ( Deluge ).
I presume that they are better prepared to bounce back from the famine of 1601 -1603 and Time of Troubles and maybe even achieve earlier conquest of Ukraine ( Deluge ).