WI: One France Policy

Could France do the same to England to what PR.China did to Taiwan and implement a one France policy in which the people who recognize Capetian France also include Plantagenet territories such as England, the reverse would be true as well for the Plantagenet France and England.
 
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Could France do the same to England to what PR.China did to Taiwan and implement a one France policy in which the people who recognize Capetian France also include Plantagenet territories such as England, the reverse would be true as well for the Plantagenet France and England.

Sorry, don't understand the question. Please could you elaborate?

Best Regards
Grey Wolf
 
The English Kings certainly thought they were Kings of France (see Henry V), but since France didn't really exist until mid 1400's not sure that it would work the other way round.

France was a nominal country until then, controlled more by the powerful Dukes and less by the Royal Family. The ties to England were from these Dukes, in particular Anjou not from the royal bloodline.
 
Could France do the same to England to what PR.China did to Taiwan and implement a one France policy in which the people who recognize Capetian France also include Plantagenet territories such as England, the reverse would be true as well for the Plantagenet France and England.

Recognition was a personal issue in the middle ages not a state issue - the question makes little sense.

If you are asking for anyone who recognises the Capetians as overlords in France to automatically recognise them as overlords in England then I'm not sure who is doing the recognising - vassal dukes will do whatever their leige lord lets them get away with and other nations (the Empire, Burgundy) will do whatever realpolitk suggest is the best deal for them.
 
This is seriously anachronistic. The idea of the Nation-State didn't really exist at this time. The Kings of France could claim to be Kings of England, but they'd need a good dynastic reason (which they didn't have OTL) to do so.
 
This is seriously anachronistic. The idea of the Nation-State didn't really exist at this time. The Kings of France could claim to be Kings of England, but they'd need a good dynastic reason (which they didn't have OTL) to do so.

Well, Louis VIII did...

Best Regards
Grey Wolf
 
Well, Louis VIII did...

Best Regards
Grey Wolf

I believe that was at the request/invitation of the English nobility though.

The problem with Plantagenet France meaning anything is that its not an independent state even in the Medieval sense of statehood - its territories held by the English kings as vassals of the French king.

To put it another way, Edward Plantagent, Duke of Gascony, is a vassal of the King of France, and only incidentally (as far as this goes) King of England.

It is not "English" France.

Meanwhile the Kings of France did have a certain level of authority over the kingdom worth taking seriously before the mid-1400s - just overmighty subjects, including said Edward Plantagenet, determined to preserve their authority at his expense.
 
Exactly what everyone else said. England was never considered a part of France; no one ever said that just because someone was King of England meant he should be King of France, or visa versa. The reason Edward Plantagenet said he was King of France was because (according to him) he inherited it from one of his ancestors. The (other claimant to the title of) King of France didn't have any ancestors in the English royal line, so there's no reason for him to call himself King of England.

No. Won't work.
 
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