WI: No Treaty of Tordesillas

I was recently reading The Penguin History of Latin America, and noticed that it said "A line of demarcation was drawn in 1493 at a longitude 100 leagues west of the Azores and Cape Verde Islands, but at Portugal's request, and with the diplomatic concurrence of Spain, this line was moved a further 270 leagues westwards by the Treaty of Tordesillas. . .unwittingly delivering to Portugal the as yet unknown. . .Brazil".

What if relations between the two countries become frostier, or Portugal offends Alexander VI somehow? Could a Spanish Brazil happen peacefully, or would there be a war between Spain and Portugal?
 
It would have eventually little impact. It was already irrelevant OTL (Francis Ier ignoring it while asking which part of Adam's will prevented him to grab lands there) after the naval rise of other atlantic countries.

ITTL, I don't see why Castille would be interested on Brazil unless if they tried to make a big "fuck" to Portugal. See, a former papal bull gave islands south of Europe to Portugal and it didn't prevented Castille to take Antillas, and the accidental discovery of Brazil by Portuguese is still likely to happen (being mostly due to India's trade way situation, the real goal of Portugal).
Really, unless they want to piss off Portugal, they're likely to make some sort of "de facto situation is de facto" deal and to try not being dicks for each others. Really, Portugal's goal was India and didn't show too much incitative to Antillas (unless as bargain chip for African lands).
 
It would have eventually little impact. It was already irrelevant OTL (Francis Ier ignoring it while asking which part of Adam's will prevented him to grab lands there) after the naval rise of other atlantic countries.

ITTL, I don't see why Castille would be interested on Brazil unless if they tried to make a big "fuck" to Portugal. See, a former papal bull gave islands south of Europe to Portugal and it didn't prevented Castille to take Antillas, and the accidental discovery of Brazil by Portuguese is still likely to happen (being mostly due to India's trade way situation, the real goal of Portugal).
Really, unless they want to piss off Portugal, they're likely to make some sort of "de facto situation is de facto" deal and to try not being dicks for each others. Really, Portugal's goal was India and didn't show too much incitative to Antillas (unless as bargain chip for African lands).

I don't think it would make much of a difference up to the union of crowns in 1580. At that point, though, if Castile has a claim to Brazil, it seems plausible that they might assert it to take control of Brazil away from the Council of Portugal and give it to the Council of the Indies, which would leave Brazil in Spanish hands after the end of the union in 1640, assuming that everything else goes more or less the same.
 
As not passing such treaty would only serves to make a more tensed relation between Portugal and Spain (less for colonial rivalty, than that one side or both would refuse to reach a compromise considering they have different interests), would the situation that lead to Iberian Union would happen in first place?
 
As not passing such treaty would only serves to make a more tensed relation between Portugal and Spain (less for colonial rivalty, than that one side or both would refuse to reach a compromise considering they have different interests), would the situation that lead to Iberian Union would happen in first place?

The Iberian Union wasn't achieved in a friendly fashion in OTL. But I guess if the disagreement results in much worse relations, maybe Charles V doesn't marry a Portuguese infanta, which would certainly shake things up.
 
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