What if there was no spanish inquisition? but still after the fall Granada, how would this spanish history? or the spanish empire?
would this lead to, in the 19th or 20th century a balkanisation of Iberia?
What if there was no spanish inquisition? but still after the fall Granada, how would this spanish history? or the spanish empire?
would this lead to, in the 19th or 20th century a balkanisation of Iberia?
Not sure of the actual impact on history, but you may see a couple of cultural things. First, there will be (assuming the rest goes relatively per OTL) less stigma against Catholics, as this is due in large part to the actions of the inquisition.
And also you may see less rigorous legal procedures, at least in Catholic countries. The Inquisition, for all their atrocities (supposed and real) were diligent record-keepers, and had some of the best documentation of any legal system in Europe during their heyday
Well, first of all... what has this to do with anything? I don't get this last line. How exactly will the presence or absence of an inquisition result in political balkanization?
.
What if there was no spanish inquisition? but still after the fall Granada, how would this spanish history? or the spanish empire?
What if there was no spanish inquisition?
but still after the fall Granada, how would this spanish history? or the spanish empire?
would this lead to, in the 19th or 20th century a balkanisation of Iberia?
Well, first of all... what has this to do with anything? I don't get this last line. How exactly will the presence or absence of an inquisition result in political balkanization?
Then quite possibly no Spanish Empire, arguably no European slave trade.
One thing to consider is that for all its bad reputation, the Inquisition was actually one of the fairer courts in Renaissance Europe. Not saying it was a great court, but ALL European courts back then would offend our modern sensibilities. The Inquisition, especially the Spanish Inquistion's, bad reputation stems from Protestants using a few bad incidences and blowing them out of proportion for propaganda purposes. That was done quite a lot back then. Just look at 'Bloody Mary' whose death told was less then half of her father Henry VIII.
Then arguably no European slave trade.
Do you mean the Trans-Atlantic or Barbery slave-trade?
The transatlantic slave trade, my reasoning being that it was Papal authority which essentially gave 'permission' for Christians to trade in non Christian slaves.
The transatlantic slave trade, my reasoning being that it was Papal authority which essentially gave 'permission' for Christians to trade in non Christian slaves. However in retrospect the greater influence of Arabs and Berbers would probably increase slavery, not lessen it as it was widespread practise within those cultures.
And what does that have to do with the Inquisition?
Christians never really needed papal authority to throw their weight around and make money. Especially the kind of Christians called 'Protestants,' but pretty much true for the Catholics too.