So my POD is that the Soviet-Japanese Border War gets nasty in 1936-early 1937 and something like the Battle of Khalkin Gol basically happens then, but it stops short of declared war as IOTL. The Marco Polo Bridge Incident is butterflied, and the Kwantung Army views the USSR as the bigger threat, preventing any junior officers from going crazy and deciding to invade China with a single company, and the Hokushin-ron/Strike North faction wanes as IOTL. Then, the European theater of WWII happens as IOTL. Hitler invaded Poland in 1939, kicks off war with France and Britain, takes Poland, Norway, Denmark, then in a shocker France and the Low Countries, etc., etc. France surrenders and the Vichy regime takes over too, should make that clear. Meanwhile, an uncommitted Japan watches from the sidelines. So what are the odds that Japan in this scenario decides to strike south without the direct catalyst of sanctions and the need for resources to fuel their war in China? I’m thinking the temptation would probably be irresistible at some point. The military absolutely dominated the government and pretty much the whole leadership was crazy, Nanshin-ron/Strike South had been national policy for years though whether they should take the European and American colonies was controversial, and Hachirō Arita, the general who got the Greater East Asian Co-Prosperity Sphere written into national policy, was already Minister of Foreign Affairs. I don’t think that crew could resist taking a run at their colonies with the metropoles of the most important ones concurred and the British decimated and distracted.
Am I correct, or no? If they do strike, how does the war go down? It’s a certainty as IOTL that they would lose, but not being engaged in China frees up literally millions of troops and a huge amount of merchant shipping. A lot of stuff that is talked about but that the Japanese could never have pulled off like invading Australia suddenly looks a lot more plausible (not that this would work). Not being engaged from 1937-1941 (assuming they strike that year) also frees up a lot of resources and makes it possible to build up more and not have the munitions shortage like IOTL 1940. So what happens? How far could they get?
Am I correct, or no? If they do strike, how does the war go down? It’s a certainty as IOTL that they would lose, but not being engaged in China frees up literally millions of troops and a huge amount of merchant shipping. A lot of stuff that is talked about but that the Japanese could never have pulled off like invading Australia suddenly looks a lot more plausible (not that this would work). Not being engaged from 1937-1941 (assuming they strike that year) also frees up a lot of resources and makes it possible to build up more and not have the munitions shortage like IOTL 1940. So what happens? How far could they get?
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