Can the Roman Empire defend the conquests of Justinian (mainly Italy) against the Lombards if there is no plague of Justinian/if the plague mostly hits Persian territory and barbarian populations (Arabs, Visigoths, Lombards)?
Not having the mutation that made it as fatal as it was should be entirely possible. That is, it still sweeps through Rome but it only causes a small number of deaths.Well, a Roman-screw, where Egypt is ravaged and lost for Romania may change the epidemic causes, maybe delaying it.
But, of course, it would butterfly away Justinian conquest and probably much of Eastern Roman history (if Egypt is lost and ravaged, it's likely that Syria would be as well, meaning possibly no ERE).
As for no plague as the PoD, I'm not too sure it could be plausible : while it's partially depending on historical events, it's too much of a natural event to be held without supernatural intervention.
Can the Roman Empire defend the conquests of Justinian (mainly Italy) against the Lombards if there is no plague of Justinian/if the plague mostly hits Persian territory and barbarian populations (Arabs, Visigoths, Lombards)?
The plague of Justinian is way overrated, there are signs of urban expansion in the middle East during the supposed peak of the epidemic.
What weakened the ERE was the persian occupation the Levant, which re oriented the economic networks of Syria and Egypt.
For a POD to make the ERE stronger against the VII century odds, i suggest a different treatment of Slavs and Avars in the Balkans.
Not much on the mutation itself, I'm afraid, unless you can argue of an eventual (as in datable and direct) human intervention into bacterial evolution; as it happened with, say, bovines, dogs, etc.Not having the mutation that made it as fatal as it was should be entirely possible.
Which is definitely not a proof : we have signs of huge urban expansion during the late Medieval plague as well, without anyone saying its death tool was overrated.The plague of Justinian is way overrated, there are signs of urban expansion in the middle East during the supposed peak of the epidemic.
That's an incredibly strict reading, though. I mean, I'm pretty sure that it's okay to have someone suddenly suffer a brain aneurysm as a PoD. Heck, it's okay for a PoD to be an entirely new fictional person or a shell to explode instead of not explode or - to cite one of the most well read TLs on the site - for the PoD to involve the presence of an easily domesticable yam.Not much on the mutation itself, I'm afraid, unless you can argue of an eventual (as in datable and direct) human intervention into bacterial evolution; as it happened with, say, bovines, dogs, etc.
AH deals with historical, human events. It's why evolutionary/geological PoDs are sent to ASB instead of Pre or Post 1900.
While how the epidemic happened may be changed trough an historical PoD (as proposed above), its appearance itself of the plague escape a direct intervention (it doesn't help that Egypt was likely a secondary epidemic focal point : even butterflying Egypt as the Late Antiquity granary may not be decisive, in spite of the historical implications).
Oh, it's more or less arbitrary, I give you that.That's an incredibly strict reading, though.
It's kinda a grey area, but more or less counts AFAIK. Mostly because it's a PoD directly involving an human being. Not rocks or bacterias.I mean, I'm pretty sure that it's okay to have someone suddenly suffer a brain aneurysm as a PoD.
But there you're mixing different stuff.A PoD of a particular bacterial mutation not taking place is only "evolutionary" in the same sense that a shell detonating instead of not detonating is "different laws of physics".
Would it be kosher if the guy who originally caught the disease from the chipmunk or whatever it was just plain died in infancy, then?Oh, it's more or less arbitrary, I give you that.
Still, on one part you have geological/evolutionnary PoDs being considered supernatural; and one the other part you have everything caused trough human intervention.
It's kinda a grey area, but more or less counts AFAIK. Mostly because it's a PoD directly involving an human being. Not rocks or bacterias.
(It's still particularily lazy as a PoD tough).
And even there, I think it would be discussed why someone would suffer that : as in "Why, when there's nothing pointing it was on the verge of happening IOTL".
But there you're mixing different stuff.
The first is about a change that doesn't depend of human intervention, and is obviously not the logical outcome (as the change didn't happened). Letting only a supernatural intervention (contrary to human intervention) to deal with.
As for shell not detonating, you can argue of human intervention : say the factory worker was too careless on his job, or that a default due to someone (poor maintain, artillery issue, etc.).
Of course, if you could argue that yestina pestis was bioengineered, it might be different![]()
Egypt was probably not the main epidemic source, but how it entered Mediterranean basin (a bit like Crimea for late Middle Ages) historically.Would it be kosher if the guy who originally caught the disease from the chipmunk or whatever it was just plain died in infancy, then?
I think if Lands of Red and Gold is even remotely fine then this is okay.
Does anyone know if any of the primitive antibiotics have any effectiviness against Y. Pestis?
Mutation doesn't need to happen trough species-crossing though, even killing an hypothetic patient zero doesn't mean the epidemic would have just gave up giving the really good context for it to flourish. Through sheer ammount of population (human and rodent) in Eastern Asia, it was more or less bound to happen.Clearly there was a patient zero
Giving it lasted for centuries, with much possible outerbacks in Central Asia (because it's not a pandemic doesn't mean it's not existing) after it ended in Mediterranean Basin, I'd say it had a very much important probability effect.and it's also clearly not a high probability effect given it took about seven hundred years to reoccur.
And for no plague at all, you need a much, much earlier PoD in China to somehow prevent it to appears. If there's a "patient zero", it's there you'd find him.I'm talking about no plague at all here, it just doesn't happen.
Well, yes.And for no plague at all, you need a much, much earlier PoD in China to somehow prevent it to appears. If there's a "patient zero", it's there you'd find him.
It's less a question of the exact person, than the unlikelyness of killing off the first person who catched it (and that's assuming it was not part of a "group zero") would mean that, in spite of an obviously favourable context, it would never appear at all at this point.Well, yes.
I'm sorry I can't provide citations as to the exact person
Separate strain doesn't mean unrelated, tough. It almost necessarily evolved from the same original epidemic focal point in China.(Since the second 1300s Black Death was not the same genetically or characteristically as the original Justinian plague, it was a separate strain.)
Mutation doesn't need to happen trough species-crossing though, even killing an hypothetic patient zero doesn't mean the epidemic would have just gave up giving the really good context for it to flourish. Through sheer ammount of population (human and rodent) in Eastern Asia, it was more or less bound to happen.
Then you're either pulling the worst strawman ever, or you didn't read my posts.And the sense I get is that you do think that's inevitable.
Interesting (but I'm a bit suspicious at the sensationalist, almost Cracked-like, nature of the website).Apparently, the beer they drank was absolutely loaded with it, due to the lack of pasteurization or any similar modern hygenic measures.
I'll temper that a bit : the study was about 350-550 bones. I wonder if it's more or less arbitrary, as in searching in a "middle period" that would have been present before and after.EDIT: I just reread the article, and the time period in question is acutally exactly this period. Almos too perfect...