WI: No Monroe Doctrine

Maybe not as different as you might think. Britain might try to impose something since independent states in South America would make for better trading partners than Spanish colonies. France may or may not support them. Of course if that worked out, then both France and Britain might intervene whenever it suited them.

On a different note, in An Alternate History of the Netherlands, when the Spanish Empire collapsed, various European states swept up the pieces; Prussia in the Platte River, Britain in Patagonia, France in Central America, Brazil expanding into Peru. It's possible (likelihood is another matter) that they might partition Spain's colonial empire too.
 
Yes, it was. Which is one reason he's considered one of the greatest secretaries of state in American history.

So do we look at this in terms of no Monroe doctrine at all. Or do we look at it as, Monroe Doctrine but under another name?

As the title says! What would be the effects of there never being a Monroe Doctrine or any equivalent doctrine?

whoops, missed that part.
 
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Anaxagoras

Banned
So do we look at this in terms of no Monroe doctrine at all. Or do we look at it as, Monroe Doctrine but under another name?

Just like a rose would smell as sweet by any other name, the Monroe Doctrine would have the same effect by any other name if it was the same thing.
 

frlmerrin

Banned
As the title says! What would be the effects of there never being a Monroe Doctrine or any equivalent doctrine?

As far as I can see almost naff all difference. The USA never had the ability to enforce the doctrine until the first decade of C20. The British completely ignored it prior to that so as far as I can see did the French, Spanish, Portuguese, Russians and Dutch. On those occasions when they had an interest in that hemisphere so too did the Belgians, Italians, Austria-Hungarians, Italians and even the Swedes. Can we point to any time where the USA successfully executed policy based on the doctrine prior to C20? The few examples I am aware of are where USA policy was coincident with British foreign policy.
 
As far as I can see almost naff all difference. The USA never had the ability to enforce the doctrine until the first decade of C20. The British completely ignored it prior to that so as far as I can see did the French, Spanish, Portuguese, Russians and Dutch. On those occasions when they had an interest in that hemisphere so too did the Belgians, Italians, Austria-Hungarians, Italians and even the Swedes. Can we point to any time where the USA successfully executed policy based on the doctrine prior to C20? The few examples I am aware of are where USA policy was coincident with British foreign policy.

As far as I'm aware, the Monroe Doctrine was conceived partly to back out of some kind of scuffle with the British over trade in the Americas (or some such, can't remember exactly what it was), since the USA knew very well it couldn't enforce the Doctrine, but the British could and it was in their interests to do so.

While the consequences of this depend somewhat on the PoD, from off the top of my head I'd say the British might be slightly more interventionist than OTL.
 
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