What would happen if OTL James I & VI had been a stillborn child and Mary Stuart, Queen of the Scots, had found herself unable to father another child after him? I'm asking this question because James I & VI was apparently the only legitimate surviving descendant of James IV of Scotland and Margaret Tudor. Thus, without him, England and Scotland do not end up in Personnal Union.
The first in line for the succession in England, according to Primogeniture, would be Edward Seymour (1561-1612), Viscount Beauchamp. However, he is the son of Catherine Grey whom Elizabeth disliked. After him and his children, the next in line is Anne Stanley (1580-1647), Countess of Castlehaven. Would Elizabeth let Edward Seymour succeed her or would she go for Anne Stanley?
And who exactly would succeed Mary Stuart in Scotland were she to die childless?
The first in line for the succession in England, according to Primogeniture, would be Edward Seymour (1561-1612), Viscount Beauchamp. However, he is the son of Catherine Grey whom Elizabeth disliked. After him and his children, the next in line is Anne Stanley (1580-1647), Countess of Castlehaven. Would Elizabeth let Edward Seymour succeed her or would she go for Anne Stanley?
And who exactly would succeed Mary Stuart in Scotland were she to die childless?