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What if Stalin didn't collectivize the soviet agriculture? How might have it changed this country? What about agricultural productions? Famines?


Any analogy which is helpful I see in Poland, the only european country in the Soviet sphere, which didn't have collectivization. No collectivization in Poland and also a state ban for owning more than 20hectares of private land(during the People's Republic), "helped" to preserve an inefective structure of small family farms, instead of a slow evolution to bigger more effective private farms. Also a specifics of a socialist economy in Poland with a high prices for agriculture products resulted in a creation of a group called "chłoporobotnicy" which might be translated as "peasant-workers". People who had a job somewhere in the industry or services, but also still owned their small family farms, so they had two sources of income. It was possible also because Poland has been relativly evenly populated with towns and cities evenly placed in most of her area. I think also that this development of a polish specifics caused a yet another thing. Poland has the fourth lowest urbanization rate in the EU 61%. Many people who in other situations would have seeked their future in cities and towns, in the People's Republic of Poland didn't have to, thanks to a possibility of a living as a "chłoporobotnik", than facing an unknown in the industrial cities. But the Soviet Union was much bigger and diverse country, so that's probably a much diffrent story what might have happeden in the SU.
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