And precisely why do they not, OTL?
Major relics of Christianity include the True Cross, presented by Helena in 4th century AD and dismembered - allegedly growing in the process; Calvin claims that the fragments would fill a ship; others retort that they are individually so small that most of the Cross is missing.
Another major group of relics is corpses of sundry saints. Again, several of them have been dismembered and have multiple skulls et cetera.
But I am amazed at conspicuous lack of New Testament originals.
After all, the corpses of saints were either buried or else disposed by their persecutors in dishonourable manners. Objects like True Cross would have been expected to be discarded by their users.
Whereas the Epistles were physical letters sent to specific recipient individuals or churches. They were preserved and used for some time by the recipients - notably to produce copies.
Why, when in 3rd and 4th century the veneration of relics spread, did not e. g. the Church of Corinth publish their possession of purported originals of the Epistles to Corinthian, etc?
Of course relics may be carried elsewhere, miraculously preserved, forged and claimed by multiple holders. Why did not New Testament originals function as relics from 4th century OTL? And what would have been historic effects in an TL where this did happen? (With genuineness of some originals disputed - e. g. arguing whether Revelation is the same handwriting as Gospel of John....)
Major relics of Christianity include the True Cross, presented by Helena in 4th century AD and dismembered - allegedly growing in the process; Calvin claims that the fragments would fill a ship; others retort that they are individually so small that most of the Cross is missing.
Another major group of relics is corpses of sundry saints. Again, several of them have been dismembered and have multiple skulls et cetera.
But I am amazed at conspicuous lack of New Testament originals.
After all, the corpses of saints were either buried or else disposed by their persecutors in dishonourable manners. Objects like True Cross would have been expected to be discarded by their users.
Whereas the Epistles were physical letters sent to specific recipient individuals or churches. They were preserved and used for some time by the recipients - notably to produce copies.
Why, when in 3rd and 4th century the veneration of relics spread, did not e. g. the Church of Corinth publish their possession of purported originals of the Epistles to Corinthian, etc?
Of course relics may be carried elsewhere, miraculously preserved, forged and claimed by multiple holders. Why did not New Testament originals function as relics from 4th century OTL? And what would have been historic effects in an TL where this did happen? (With genuineness of some originals disputed - e. g. arguing whether Revelation is the same handwriting as Gospel of John....)