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...and kept it as his ally?
He had already successfully puppetized Spain to a considerable degree, why did he feel he had to backstab it and get direct control?
In hindsight we know that the guerrilla launched hell upon him and played a major role in his decline... but even without hindsight it seems like a dumb thing to do... Did he have any specific reason that I'm missing? e.g. Was Spain bound to switch sides or would it be a loyal ally to the end?