Clibanarius
Banned
IOTL both North and South used Minie Balls and Rifled weapons but what if the progression of firearms is delayed long enough that the ACW is fought using Smoothbore Muskets?
IOTL both North and South used Minie Balls and Rifled weapons but what if the progression of firearms is delayed long enough that the ACW is fought using Smoothbore Muskets?
So the ACW would go pretty much like it IOTL but tactically it would resemble a Napoleonic slugfest?
IIRC, a big chunk of the forces did use muskets for a while in the early part of the war, due to a general lack of more modern weapons available; the war kinda caught both sides unprepared. Thus, the mass importation of rifles from overseas...
So the ACW would go pretty much like it IOTL but tactically it would resemble a Napoleonic slugfest?
With nothing but muskets the infantry would be useless against rifle artillery and shrapnel shells. Artillery has dominated the infantry since the Seven Years War, and the edge kept swinging further to the artillery's advantage. Minie ball rifles gave the infantry a chance. Without it artillery completely rules the field. It would be lopsided like pitting foot soldiers against armored knights before the days of pikes and crossbows.
Ah but I think the premise of the OP rules out ALL rifled weapons, so smoothbore muskets and cannon only.
With nothing but muskets the infantry would be useless against rifle artillery and shrapnel shells. Artillery has dominated the infantry since the Seven Years War, and the edge kept swinging further to the artillery's advantage. Minie ball rifles gave the infantry a chance. Without it artillery completely rules the field. It would be lopsided like pitting foot soldiers against armored knights before the days of pikes and crossbows.
Ah but I think the premise of the OP rules out ALL rifled weapons, so smoothbore muskets and cannon only.
There would be very little different, but the killed to wounded ratio will skew towards killed. Smoothbore muskets were much deadlier by the simple virtue of having more kinetic energy at combat ranges. From my blog:
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My *very* rough calculations suggest that roughly 90% of those shot with a Springfield or Enfield type weapon survived the wound, which seems to be an improvement over the maybe 75% who survived smoothbore balls. The problem is that our statistics are skewed, as those killed outright never got to the hospitals to make it into the statistics (the same happened to the killed and wounded in the Crimea, with a doctor reporting only 6% of those he saw were shot in the chest (ref)).
Smoothbore cannon would have dominated musket armed infantry too. Rifled cannon were not really a decisive weapon in the Civil War.
So, by your own admission, it could be that the statistics make it appear that the rifles were less effective than the muskets because they are looking at WOUNDED MEN DOCUMENTED BECAUSE THEY PASSED THROUGH THE HOSPITAL SYSTEM, while ignoring the dead men who never made it into a hospital, thus ignoring completely the alternative explanation that the rifles were, in fact, more effective and killed more of their victims outright than did the muskets, thus those victims never made it into the statistics.
There is a major fact which argues against your interpretation. The composition of the armies in the Mexican War was not much different than it was in the Civil War. Both were composed of a tiny number of regular troops who were supported by a great majority of Volunteer troops whose training was not of a high standard.[1] Yet, for some reason, American troops in the Mexican War were able to carry home their bayonet charges on a regular basis, but troops in the Civil War rarely did so, instead stopping about 100 yards away and engaging in a firefight. We have to ask why that is.
Your answer, expressed many times on this and other forums, is that it was a training issue. But since the overall standard of training was approximately the same...indeed, Civil War troops may have been BETTER trained than their Mexican War counterparts...that simply can't be the case.
So what else could it have been? The likely answer...a greater effectiveness of the rifle out to a longer range than a musket, and much greater effectiveness through a greater application of aimed fire at close ranges. Essentially the Civil War soldiers charged into a wall of lead which simply wasn't there in the Mexican War and were forced to stop short without making contact with their opponents.
[1] Before anyone trots out the argument that "regular troops made up a greater percentage of the overall forces in the Mexican War," some facts you may want to consider. It is true that overall, regular troops (about 26,000 of them) made up about a quarter of all US forces involved raised during the Mexican War, which is a greater percentage than in the Civil War. However, the US Army prior to the Mexican War numbered only about 5,000 men. So the other 21,000 were new recruits where were NO BETTER TRAINED THAN THE VOLUNTEERS.