WI: More Germanic/Romance hybrid languages

English is unique in that it is a hybrid of both Germanic (Anglo-Saxon) and Romanace (Anglo-Norman) languages, dispite the fact that Britian it is far from the only place where Germanic Speakers and Romance speakers coexisted. There are a number of other places where this COULD have happened:

Iberia: Spainish/Portugesse/Gothic?
Gaul: French/German?
Italia: Italian/Ostrogothic/Lombardic?
Low Countries: Dutch/Waloon?
North Africa: Afro-romance/Vadalic (I know, a long shot)
 
I would say it's pretty hard. The major reason why English has a major Romance influence is due to the Normans being the elite of the country for several hundred years and tended to segregate themselves from the English with the use of French. The others, not so much.
 
The fact is that all the other encounters went the other way round, with a Germanic speaking conquering layer dominating a much larger Romance populace, but acknowledging the cultural dominance of Latin.
It is of course possible that a part of Germany (in the broadest sense) comes to be dominated by Romance-speaking rulers (well, in a sense it happened in modern times in Belgium for a while, and in Alsace-Lorraine, but I have no clue of whether that influenced the local spoken forms towards hybridization; the conditions were WAY different with the Anglo-Saxon/Anglo-Norman situation).
On the Romance side, I suppose that can be argued that Ladin spoken in the Italian and Swiss Alps can be considered an hybrid to some extent.

However, I'd suggest another scenario:
The inner parts of southern Appenines saw massive Langobardian settlement.
Langobardian is thought to have survived there for a good while, probably until the Norman Conquest, but the speakers where no so numerous. Finally, the Longobards and other groups they had absorbed (Bulgarians and possibly some Serbians) assimilated linguistically into the Romance-speaking majority.
If this does not happen (possible PODs are, more Longobards settled in the area, heavier toll of the Justinian plague depopulating it prior the Langobardian invasion, more local prestige for the germanic form, more numerous Bulgarian settlement with its subsequent linguistic germanization, etc.) you may have an heavily Romanicized Germanic language still in use over a large, albeit not densely populated, swathe of Southern Italy by when the Normans arrive. The Norman impact should be roughly similar to the one they had over Anglo-Saxon - Indeed, such "Southern Langobardian" spoken today, would someway resemble English, probably more the OTL German or Dutch do.
 
Is there any conceivable POD where Germany could end up with að french speaking upper elite ala Normans in England?

Charlemagne´s empire lasting longer? Or just a Napoleon centuries earlier that makes more lasting gains?
 
The fact is that all the other encounters went the other way round, with a Germanic speaking conquering layer dominating a much larger Romance populace, but acknowledging the cultural dominance of Latin.
It is of course possible that a part of Germany (in the broadest sense) comes to be dominated by Romance-speaking rulers (well, in a sense it happened in modern times in Belgium for a while, and in Alsace-Lorraine, but I have no clue of whether that influenced the local spoken forms towards hybridization; the conditions were WAY different with the Anglo-Saxon/Anglo-Norman situation).
On the Romance side, I suppose that can be argued that Ladin spoken in the Italian and Swiss Alps can be considered an hybrid to some extent.

However, I'd suggest another scenario:
The inner parts of southern Appenines saw massive Langobardian settlement.
Langobardian is thought to have survived there for a good while, probably until the Norman Conquest, but the speakers where no so numerous. Finally, the Longobards and other groups they had absorbed (Bulgarians and possibly some Serbians) assimilated linguistically into the Romance-speaking majority.
If this does not happen (possible PODs are, more Longobards settled in the area, heavier toll of the Justinian plague depopulating it prior the Langobardian invasion, more local prestige for the germanic form, more numerous Bulgarian settlement with its subsequent linguistic germanization, etc.) you may have an heavily Romanicized Germanic language still in use over a large, albeit not densely populated, swathe of Southern Italy by when the Normans arrive. The Norman impact should be roughly similar to the one they had over Anglo-Saxon - Indeed, such "Southern Langobardian" spoken today, would someway resemble English, probably more the OTL German or Dutch do.

Hmmm a good premise.
Tho I should point out that Langobardian is no longer consider close to Anglo-Frisian but more with High German.
 
Is there any conceivable POD where Germany could end up with að french speaking upper elite ala Normans in England?

Charlemagne´s empire lasting longer? Or just a Napoleon centuries earlier that makes more lasting gains?

Well Charlemagne/Karl der Große/Karel de Grote was a Germanic Frank; the Frankish Nobles in the Germanic part of the Empire would keep the Germanic Frankish language of their ancestors, only the Frankish Nobles ruling in an area with a Romance majority changed their language eventually. Other changes could gradually change in border areas.

Napoleon or Louis XIV (at least his desired natural borders) are doable, and for quite some time, certainly from the period Louis XIV European nobility used French as a Lingua Franca.
 
Hmmm a good premise.
Tho I should point out that Langobardian is no longer consider close to Anglo-Frisian but more with High German.

Of course. I supposed that the resulting language would be roughly similar to English to the extent it comes from a Norman upper layer (from Normandy in both cases, so taking an almost identical dialect of Frech) over a Germanic area; and, in both cases, the Germanic language would have experienced a strong Latin and Romance influx before the Normans. I suppose that the outcome would have resemblances with English in the general structure of grammar and lexicon, but surely would not be anywhere close to mutual intelligibility with English at any given time, no more than German or Swedish are. I was not suggesting that langobardian was in itself close to Old English.
 
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