WI: Mitanni Language Survives to Present Day

How could Indo-Aryan languages still be spoken in the Middle East while at the same time they become subsumed by Dravidian, Munda, and or other languages in India and survive as only superstrate influence there?( Essentially, a reverse of the situation in OTL) I don't know much about the Mitanni and how they migrated from the Proto-Indo-Iranian homeland to the Middle East. Does their attestation in historical records predate Vedic Sanskrit and are they both daughter languages of Proto-Indo-Aryan?
 
Reverse? You'd need a larger Indo-Aryan/Vedic Aryan group that goes towards the ME and the smaller group to India.

The POD needed would have to happen in the Central Asia itself.

What would the POD be exactly : the Indo-Aryans just migrating in larger numbers to Mesopotamia while a smaller contingent goes to India.
 
Difficult to say. The split looks to have happened around North of today's Afghanistan.

The greener lands are located towards the East and towards India. You need an altogether different migration route to get this result.

Yeah, I guess it is a matter of greener pastures.

That is true so perhaps my new question is how can the small Indo-Aryan elite either enforce their language among their Hurrian subjects or how can the Mitanni dialect survive while being heavily "Indo-Aryanized"
 
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