How could Indo-Aryan languages still be spoken in the Middle East while at the same time they become subsumed by Dravidian, Munda, and or other languages in India and survive as only superstrate influence there?( Essentially, a reverse of the situation in OTL) I don't know much about the Mitanni and how they migrated from the Proto-Indo-Iranian homeland to the Middle East. Does their attestation in historical records predate Vedic Sanskrit and are they both daughter languages of Proto-Indo-Aryan?