OTL Mexico abolished slavery in 1829. This abolition was probably the culmination of a process that had begun during the struggle for independence from Spain. However, I don’t know how overdetermined emancipation was in 1820s Mexico. Slavery remained legal for longer in other newly independent states of Spanish America. The Spanish-speaking states of South America for instance abolished slavery only in the years 1851-1854.
What would knock-on effects of continued slavery in Mexico be? There’s one less point of disagreement between Anglo settlers in Texas and the Mexican government, but is that alone enough to keep Anglo-Texans content to remain part of Mexico? Slavery was a huge economic incentive for independence from Mexico, but I would note several other Mexican states were trying to break away at the time Texas was in OTL (Nuevo Leon, Tamaulipas & Yucatan at least I think)
Or, if one assumes it does not change the eventual loss of northern Mexican territories to the United States, does the continued legal status of slavery make it an even bigger target for pro-southern filibusters? Does it make it any more likely California would enter the Union as a slave state?
What would knock-on effects of continued slavery in Mexico be? There’s one less point of disagreement between Anglo settlers in Texas and the Mexican government, but is that alone enough to keep Anglo-Texans content to remain part of Mexico? Slavery was a huge economic incentive for independence from Mexico, but I would note several other Mexican states were trying to break away at the time Texas was in OTL (Nuevo Leon, Tamaulipas & Yucatan at least I think)
Or, if one assumes it does not change the eventual loss of northern Mexican territories to the United States, does the continued legal status of slavery make it an even bigger target for pro-southern filibusters? Does it make it any more likely California would enter the Union as a slave state?