WI Mary the rich died childless.

Mary the rich was the last Burgundian ruler of the lands of Burgundy, before her son a Habsburg inherited it at her death. So my question is how would Europe be affected if she died childless, would the Habsburgs try to hold on to her possessions or would it be inherited by France and if so would his lead to a French wank on Europe.
 
The first in line agnatically was the house of Valois-Burgundy-Nevers, then (cognatically) the house de la Marck (Cleves).
 
So basically the Burgundian inheritance falls initially under the French Crown (legally at least, although legal is a flexible term).

Strikes me as it would be settled on the battlefield rather than by the genealogy heralds.
 
So basically the Burgundian inheritance falls initially under the French Crown (legally at least, although legal is a flexible term).

Strikes me as it would be settled on the battlefield rather than by the genealogy heralds.

So then the Habsburgs may try to keep the land or have someone else apart from the french king installed as the duke.
 
wouldn't Habsburgs in that case throw their support behind de la Marck, with a few weddings between the two houses trying to submerge the house?
 
So basically the Burgundian inheritance falls initially under the French Crown (legally at least, although legal is a flexible term).

Strikes me as it would be settled on the battlefield rather than by the genealogy heralds.

Not the entire inheritance, most French possessions do, but the imperial possessions do not; the latter at least accept inheritance through the female line (as do certain French fiefs).

Besides IMHO a PoD/TL where Mary lives long enough to witness the birth of her grandchildren could be interesting and refreshing.
 
Not the entire inheritance, most French possessions do, but the imperial possessions do not.

Besides IMHO a PoD/TL where Mary lives long enough to witness the birth of her grandchildren could be interesting and refreshing.

But at least initially John II would inherit and he is aligned strongly with the French King.

I suspect the Hapsburg / Imperial faction would end up in control of much much less of the Burgundian inheritance.
 
The main point was, that it still was an amalgamation of various French and Imperial fiefs, not a unified entity. In fact the Habsburg Burgundian Inheritance only got a unified inheritance with the Pragmatic Sanction of 1549 by Charles V.

However the De La Marck claim comes from Mary of Burgundy, a daughter of John the Fearless. Whereas the Valois-Burgundy-Nevers claim goes back to Philip the Bold. In other words in the fiefs, where there can be inheritance through the female line, the house of De La Marck actually has the stronger claim.
This also means things can become even more complicated, gains made by Philip the Good and Charles the Bold could also go to different heirs.

Interestingly a Valois-Burgundy-Nevers heiress, Elizabeth of Nevers, eldest daughter of count John II of Nevers, was married to duke John I of Cleves (house of De La Marck).
 
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