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As we all know, via dynastic marriages, the Spanish Hapsburg family ended with the mad and childless Charles II, who died in 1700. After a quick war of succession between (mainly) France and the Austrian Hapsburgs, the succession went to Philip V, a grandson of Louis XIV (who had married Maria Theresa of Spain, and older sister of Charles II).

However, Philip V was not forcibly the main french candidate for the Spansih succession. In fact, his father Louis the Grand Dauphin, being Maria Theresa's son, would have had a better claim to the throne than his second son. To do so would have paused a major problem however, since this could have caused a Personnal Union of France and Spain under the Grand Dauphin. The Succession was given to Philip V because the chances of a Personnal Union happening would have been greatly reduced, though this was to be ensured in the treaty that concluded the War of Spanish succession, when Philip V officially renounced his claims to the French throne.

However, for a very long time, Louis XIV considered the possibility of giving the Spanish throne to his son from what I read. What if he had chosen to have the Grand Dauphin crowned as King Luis I of Spain? How would the other European powers react?
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