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Could Japan have given another try at invading the Asian mainland during the Ming collapse of the 1630s and 1640s? At least another invasion of Korea? Possible partition of Korea, seizing the south during one of the Jurchens wars with Korea in the 1630s.
Certainly the 1590s attempt did not succeed (although the Japanese were loath to admit it to themselves). But over a generation later in the 1600s after further Ming decay conditions might be seen as more auspicious.
Was Japan drastically demilitarized by the 1630s compared with the 1590s? How were the Korean and Japanese navies of the 1630s comparing to those of 40 years earlier?