WI: Hohenstauffen Poland

What if Boleslaw the Wrymouth does not remarry and his son Wladyslaw II fails to Produce a heir and the heiress of Wladyslaw II marries to the Hohenstauffen family and Poland is inherited by Hohenstauffens, what will happen if Poland becomes ruled by the Hohenstauffens, would it be decentralized like in OTL.
 
If a Hohenstaufen king/prince is accepted by the Poles, then there will be no decentralization - a single ruler will prevent that.
 
Might keep Hohenstaufen interests more Germany-centric and more focused on the North and East as opposed to the late 12th cent. drift to Italian adventures. This would unfortunately probably butterfly away my favorite high medieval personality, Frederick II Hohenstaufen.
 
It wouldn't happened. Poland was under seniority succession then, so even if Bolesław have died leaving no sons, his successor would still be Mieszko III. Not to mention that polish nobility wouldn't accept the rule of a stranger (especially German!), or at least not while there were so many other Piast dukes.
 
It wouldn't happened. Poland was under seniority succession then, so even if Bolesław have died leaving no sons, his successor would still be Mieszko III. Not to mention that polish nobility wouldn't accept the rule of a stranger (especially German!), or at least not while there were so many other Piast dukes.
The Scenario is that Boleslaw the Wrymouth having only one son whose only daughter marries into the Hohenstauffen.
 
Sorry, misunderstood about which Bolesław we were talking about ;) Anyway, I still don't suppose that the polish nobility would like german Stauffs on the throne, especially since Poland always desired to be independent from the Empire and thus supported the papal side. Election similar to the one after the death of Kazimierz III would be most likely.
 
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