That TIME's "Man of the Year" designation unlike the Nobel Peace Prize wasn't meant as a commendation is also sort of indicated by their cover...
Thats terrifying
That TIME's "Man of the Year" designation unlike the Nobel Peace Prize wasn't meant as a commendation is also sort of indicated by their cover...
Does hypocracy work backwards in time, you think? Steinman got his Nobel several decades after 1948.
They gave Dag Hammarskjöld a Nobel Peace Prize in 1961, which isn’t too far from 1948.
The media should not be made or pressures to serve state intrest or prestige.If I recall, they didn’t want to do it until after Indian Independence since before would anger the British, and Gandhi was assasinated a year later.
Edit: according to Wikipedia, Gandhi had been brought up for nomination for 1948 just a few days before his death. Afterwards, the committee decided to nominate no one that year since “there was no suitable living candidate.”
Yes, it was still hypocritical. But also political.Does hypocracy work backwards in time, you think? Steinman got his Nobel several decades after 1948.
More pertinently, though, that Gandhi died in between the nomination and awarding the Nobel was not the real reason not to give the Nobel to him, but just part of a justification for it. There were perceived political reasons for not choosing Gandhi in the event, and disagreement between the people doing the choosing - like there often is. In the event, they chose a "safer" choice, a decision which was very soon regretted.
See the Nobel website for a writeup.
Why would Hitler get a peace prize for threatening to invade a sovereign country? Last I checked it was Mussolini who officially introduced the agreement and played the part of the great reconciler.I did some quick research on this, well I checked some Wikipedia articles which is the most research this topic deserves, and I found out that the Nobel Peace Prize is usually decided in September and announced in December. Apparently sometimes the decision is made in October. The Munich agreement was made on September 30th, 1938, and Germany invaded Poland on September 1st, 1939.
Hitler was not awarded the Nobel Peace prize for the Munich agreement because he reneged on the agreement too quickly and the agreement came too late in the year. But suppose the Nobel people were taking a long time to decide in 1938, so they could still award it right after the agreement was announced, and awarded the prize to Hitler and Chamberlain.
Would this have any effects worth mentioning at all?
Gandhi was never awarded a Nobel Peace Prize.
Does hypocracy work backwards in time, you think? Steinman got his Nobel several decades after 1948.
More pertinently, though, that Gandhi died in between the nomination and awarding the Nobel was not the real reason not to give the Nobel to him, but just part of a justification for it. There were perceived political reasons for not choosing Gandhi in the event, and disagreement between the people doing the choosing - like there often is. In the event, they chose a "safer" choice, a decision which was very soon regretted.
See the Nobel website for a writeup.