As we all know, Enrique III of Navarre/Henri de Bourbon, Duc de Vendôme became a Catholic after succeeding to the French throne. He was married to the last of the Valois kings of France’s sister. However, the marriage had remained childless (although, if one believes the stories, neither had problems conceiving with other people). I’ve seen it posited, that the minute Henri IV had a son by Marguerite de Valois ‘la Reine Margot’, Catherine de Medicis would’ve had him done away with. Though, in the same breath, I will caution that Catherine was willing to see her own daughter supplanted when it became apparent (shortly before Catherine’s death) that Margot seemingly couldn’t give Henri a child, since she offered her own granddaughter (Margot’s niece, Christine of Lorraine OTL Grand Duchess of Tuscany) as a replacement wife for Henri.
Now for my question, I’m unsure as to the grounds on which Henri and Margot’s annulment was granted – it could be anything from consanguinity (they were second cousins) to childlessness, to perhaps lack of consent for the marriage for the contracted parties (can’t remember the movie’s name, but Margot is shown as weeping at the wedding, and her brother the king gets up to beat her (although this could be a liberty, since Henri is in the movie also shown alongside at the altar, whilst in real life he was forced to remain on the porch of Notre Dame due to his not being Catholic)).
But, assuming childlessness (AFAIK a dispensation had been granted as to the consanguinity) was the reason, what if Margot had popped out a few living daughters (she herself was the healthiest of Catherine de Medicis’ children) before Henri becomes king of France? Could/would Henri still divorce her, since he would know that girls cannot succeed to the throne of France? Or would he simply take an attitude of que sera sera, maybe engineer the marriage of his youngest daughter to the prince de Condé’s son and watch Navarre and France go their separate ways once he dies? Or does he take the radical step of having the law changes so that his daughter can succeed?
Henri IV, King of France [1589-], King of Navarre [1572-] (b.1553) m: 1572 Marguerite de Valois (b.1553)
1. Madeleine (b.1573)
2. Jeanne (b.1578)
3. Catherine (b.1580)
4. Charlotte (b.1581, d.1582)
5. Antoinette (b.1584)
Now for my question, I’m unsure as to the grounds on which Henri and Margot’s annulment was granted – it could be anything from consanguinity (they were second cousins) to childlessness, to perhaps lack of consent for the marriage for the contracted parties (can’t remember the movie’s name, but Margot is shown as weeping at the wedding, and her brother the king gets up to beat her (although this could be a liberty, since Henri is in the movie also shown alongside at the altar, whilst in real life he was forced to remain on the porch of Notre Dame due to his not being Catholic)).
But, assuming childlessness (AFAIK a dispensation had been granted as to the consanguinity) was the reason, what if Margot had popped out a few living daughters (she herself was the healthiest of Catherine de Medicis’ children) before Henri becomes king of France? Could/would Henri still divorce her, since he would know that girls cannot succeed to the throne of France? Or would he simply take an attitude of que sera sera, maybe engineer the marriage of his youngest daughter to the prince de Condé’s son and watch Navarre and France go their separate ways once he dies? Or does he take the radical step of having the law changes so that his daughter can succeed?
Henri IV, King of France [1589-], King of Navarre [1572-] (b.1553) m: 1572 Marguerite de Valois (b.1553)
1. Madeleine (b.1573)
2. Jeanne (b.1578)
3. Catherine (b.1580)
4. Charlotte (b.1581, d.1582)
5. Antoinette (b.1584)