WI: Heavy Plough Introduced to Europe in 200s BC

Suppose that the heavy plough was introduced to Europe from China not during the early Middle Ages, but instead a century or two before the birth of Christ. Would this allow for economic growth among the peoples of Germany, Britain and Gaul? If so, would this be an impetus for the formation of larger, centralized states in those regions? What would those states look like? If the Romans achieve supremacy in the Mediterranean as OTL, would they have a harder time subjugating Gaul as a result?

I haven't really put much thought into the idea, it just came to my head at random.
 
The problem is, I can't see how that's going to end up in Germanic hands without passing through the Romans - and the Romans could use it to have a /reason/ to get Germany. It would surely end up making Germania more populous, but it also makes it more likely for it to be Roman.
 
The problem is, I can't see how that's going to end up in Germanic hands without passing through the Romans - and the Romans could use it to have a /reason/ to get Germany. It would surely end up making Germania more populous, but it also makes it more likely for it to be Roman.

True, but wouldn't a wealthier, more populous Gaul and Germania put up a greater fight against any Roman incursion?
 
IOTL, I think, whilst the heavy plough did benefit agriculture in both Northern Europe and the Mediterranean, it helped Northern Europe more, helping to shift the centre of European gravity away from Italy and towards France and Germany. ITTL, it would probably also benefit the Gauls and Germans more than the Romans and Greeks. It would probably be harder for Rome to conquer Gaul at least, although (depending on how united/disunited Gaul is) probably still doable. Germany might actually be easier to conquer, since instead of a load of sparsely-inhabited forests and swamps the Romans would be attacking reasonably wealthy and populous farmland.
 
Top