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Let's say in 1709 the Allies did not demand that Louis XIV use his own army to eject his grandson Philip V from Spain.

Like OTL, Louis agreed that the entire Spanish empire should be surrendered to the Archduke Charles, and he also consented to return to the frontiers of the Peace of Westphalia, giving up all the territories he had acquired over sixty years of his reign.

He also agreed to furnish money to the Allies for them to be able to force Philip from Spain.

And as a result, without French support, the Allies were successful, and 1710, Charles became Charles III of Spain, and a treaty ending the war, with France giving up all territory gained since 1648, was signed.

Then in 1711, Joseph I died, and Charles III also became Charles VI of the Empire.

So what now? Charles VI has now recreated the empire of Charles V. France was now shorn of the gains since 1648, meaning no Franche Comte, Alsace, Roussilion, etc.
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