WI Germany doesnt swallow the Rest-Tschechei?

Replicator

Banned
What if Germany does take over the Sudetenland as agreed in the Munich agreement - but does not occupy the rest?The attack on Poland though takes place as in OTL.Without swallowing the Rest Tschechei would there had been a British guarantee for Poland??And would Britain have declared war on Germany without a gurantee that comitted it to do so?
 
No invasion of Czechia probably means the appeasement strategy isn't fatally wounded, Britain will still fight for Poland, that was made very clear.
 
First you must explain what happens to Hitler? Why did he change his mind?

Anyway, if this comes to pass, whatever the reason, then Britain would not be compelled to guarantee Poland. They only guaranteed Poland in March, after the anexation of Chezch.
 

MSZ

Banned
Anyway, if this comes to pass, whatever the reason, then Britain would not be compelled to guarantee Poland. They only guaranteed Poland in March, after the anexation of Chezch.

But the guarantee wasn't granted only because of Hitler's invasion of Czechia - it only speeded it's declaration, as joining the franco-polish alliance by the UK was already considered in London since Munich. Of course if without Czechoslovakias termination Hitler declares some demands on Poland, the West still would want to appease him to buy time, but if Hitler decides to go to war, the West would still declare it on him, guaratees being granted or not.
 
I'm not sure if Hitler could decide NOT to invade the Czechs. German economy was dangerously close to a breakdown - Czech gold and cash reserves were very needed. Not to mention whole Czech industry (very modern and very big) and a lot of Czech arms - not only tanks, but cars, artillery etc. BTW, IIRC Czech Army rifles used the same kind of ammo German Army used (7,92mm Mauser), which naturally made it easier for Germans.
 
What if Germany does take over the Sudetenland as agreed in the Munich agreement - but does not occupy the rest?The attack on Poland though takes place as in OTL.Without swallowing the Rest Tschechei would there had been a British guarantee for Poland??And would Britain have declared war on Germany without a gurantee that comitted it to do so?

Germany can't avoid the invasion of the Czech Republic. It's too close to Berlin with a military too dangerous. And Germany needs czech industry. Also, the invasion of France fail without czech tanks.
 
I think you need to consider the position of the Soviet Union in this scenario, as the Nazi-Soviet Pact was key to allowing the war on Poland to go ahead. The question is how does this scenario change the machinations in Moscow?

Best Regards
Grey Wolf
 

Eurofed

Banned
But the guarantee wasn't granted only because of Hitler's invasion of Czechia - it only speeded it's declaration, as joining the franco-polish alliance by the UK was already considered in London since Munich. Of course if without Czechoslovakias termination Hitler declares some demands on Poland, the West still would want to appease him to buy time, but if Hitler decides to go to war, the West would still declare it on him, guaratees being granted or not.

Unlikely. Before German invasion of Czechia, appeasement still remained the default foreign policy approach towards Germany. That invasion was the event that radically discredited it, by showing Hitler was deeply untrustworthy, and his expansionist foreign policy went much beyond irredentism for ethnic Germans.

The objections about the economic motivations that drove Hitler to invade Czechia make sense, and in his view, the Munich settlement had only deprived him of the opportunity to conquer all of Bohemia-Moravia. Nonetheless, a PoD may be reasonable where he opportunistically decides to delay the annexation of CZS in order to keep the Western powers content with German foreign till Poland is dealt with.

I'm not entirely sure if German economy can afford to delay the annexation of Czechia till late 1939 - early 1940 if rearmament is not toned down (something Hitler would be unwilling to do given his plans for a war against the USSR). But if it can be done, it is possible that a slightly more cautious Hitler may do it. After all, after Munich CZS had already become a satellite of Germany, the status quo gave Germany some substantial economic and political advantages, even if nowhere so extensive as full-fledged annexation.

It also depends on what TTL Hitler actually plans to do with Poland. If he really wants total control of it to start its Lebensraum Germanization, in the end a war with the Entente would be inevitable. If he deems it enough to get satisfaction of German "reasonable" claims (Danzig, the Corridor, and Upper Silesia) and making Poland a satellite of Germany one way or another as an anti-Soviet strategic springboard, then he may gain that, either through a repetition of the Munich platform if Poland proves compliant, or a German-Polish war if it does not.

Or alternatively, one may get rid of Hitler altogether. Have Maurice Bavaud gun him down on October 9, 1938. The likely successors (Goring or the Heer) were so fearful of a general war with the Entente or the USSR that they would heed the Munich status quo and only press a "reasonable" German irredentist agenda against Poland if the Entente powers remain tied to appeasement. Since they did not want a general war, they would be willing to slow down the pace of rearmament to stabilize German economy, which makes the plunder of Czech wealth unnecessary.
 
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