In OTL, the French had used the veto on the future Innocent XI in the previous conclave, and it lasted for months because of it before a compromise was found. However, by 1676, he'd become more popular and they decided to let it slide even though he was sympathetic to Spain.
Suppose they decide to keep using the veot? How did that work? Could they veto only one candidate or anyone they wanted?
One possible reason they could was the death of Chrlos II early; this woudl let them try to put Philippe on the throne and thus they wouldn't want anyone who would oppose that, which I presume Innocent XI would. Another is that the man's popularity just isn't qutie as bit or Louis XIV just decides he is Louis le Grande and can do whatever he wants, since he did it before.
Also, would this have any impact on gather troops to fight the Ottomans in the next decade as they besiege Vienna? I imagine there would be about the same desire to come together, but an absence of a Pope for a year or two might embolden them to attack a couple years before they are ready.