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Hi all,

So I am reading Plan Z: The Nazi Bid for Naval Dominance by David Wragg.

In it, it discusses the possibility of the Germans seizing the French Fleet in 1940 - Had they pushed into South of France instead of settling for a cease-fire with France, and the possibility of a more agressive Italian push once they entered the war in 1940, that resulted in the capture of the French Fleet before it could be scuttled.

Now, as we all know the French Fleet was scuttled when Germany tried to take it by force in 1942, and I suspect that had the Germans or Italians come close to the bases in 1940 then the fleet would have either scuttled then or fled to Africa/UK etc.

All is not over however, because one more item is mentioned in the book. It says that there was serious discussion within the French government (Lead by the President I believe) about France siding with the European winner in the war at that time - the Germans.

My thought is therefore this: What if the French government decides to side with Germany in 1940, and joins the Axis cause instead of becomming a government in exile and continuing to fight against Germany?

Germany could obtain the majority of the French fleet, and would need to commit less troops to France. She would also have French military forces acting on it's side more than OTL.

If this therefore occured in 1940, what is likely to happen in respects to the course of events in WWII?

Now, before it starts, can we please all ignore the "But France would never do that" ideals, and assume that for whatever reason she does.

If you would like more intel on this discussion, let me know and I will post it later when I am back from work.

Discuss! :D
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