Let's say the Napoleonic Code doesn't change the primogeniture laws and peasants aren't forced to split estates when passing to the next generation. Let's also say that the theory that says that law change caused France's meager population growth from 1800-1945 is true. What happens to European politics when France follows the same demographic transition trends as the rest of Europe?
Let's say France has a 1% population growth rate annually, a little less than Germany and significantly less than Britain.
It would have 40 million people in 1840, 54 million in 1870, and 73 million in 1900. It would almost certainly have at least economic parity with a unified Germany. I believe that this would completely alter European politics. France might be able to reclaim the Rhineland in the 1840s or 50s. Would France be able to prevent German unification? Would it remain a rival with the UK? If French immigration is as large as German immigration, would America be that much more populous? Perhaps even a significant Francophone population? Let's figure this out.
Let's say France has a 1% population growth rate annually, a little less than Germany and significantly less than Britain.
It would have 40 million people in 1840, 54 million in 1870, and 73 million in 1900. It would almost certainly have at least economic parity with a unified Germany. I believe that this would completely alter European politics. France might be able to reclaim the Rhineland in the 1840s or 50s. Would France be able to prevent German unification? Would it remain a rival with the UK? If French immigration is as large as German immigration, would America be that much more populous? Perhaps even a significant Francophone population? Let's figure this out.