in 1973, in San Antonio Independent School District v. Rodriguez, the SCOTUS in holding that using property taxes to fund school districts wasn't unconstitutional also said that education is not a fundamental interest to be protected within the scope of the equal protection clause in order to justify this holding. So, what if the SCOTUS had found differently and stated that education was a fundamental interest protected by the scope of the equal protection clause (thereby also making it such that education couldn't be funded by local property taxes)?