Let's assume that, roughly in the same period Romans introduced silk cultivation and industry in the Mediterranean Basin (in the VIth century), they introduced tea cultivation and preparation (and of course, consumption).
I've little doubt that it would be a luxury product, would it be only because it would have been hard to cultivate outside some precise regions (probably Egypt?) but what would have been, IYO, the cultural consequences?
I've little doubt that it would be a luxury product, would it be only because it would have been hard to cultivate outside some precise regions (probably Egypt?) but what would have been, IYO, the cultural consequences?