WI: China decides to punish the Dutch in 1740

After the Dutch in Batavia killed more than 10000 Chinese people, some people in the Qing government wanted to cut all trade with the Dutch until the Dutch apologized. IOTL this was not carried out.

What effects could there be if the Chinese had carried out an embargo against the Dutch in 1740?

Western powers would be more fearful of Chinese retaliation. As a result, we might see a McCartney Embassy that is far more respectful. (50 years isn't a lot, I don't know if it'd be butterflied away)

Maybe it might even be successful, if they limited their demands.
 
Would the Dutch try to force trade back open?
Back then the Chinese were still rather strong militarily, and hadn't fallen so much behind in technology, and wasn't as corrupt. Moreover, they still had the support of the populace and of course, sheer numbers.
 
After the Dutch in Batavia killed more than 10000 Chinese people, some people in the Qing government wanted to cut all trade with the Dutch until the Dutch apologized. IOTL this was not carried out.

What effects could there be if the Chinese had carried out an embargo against the Dutch in 1740?

It was a very disproportionate retaliation for killing 50 Dutch soldiers, and it took the Dutch Governor-General 11 days to reign in gangs, which refused to stop. As a timetable the Dutch were killed on 7 October, on 9 October Dutch, natives and Slaves retaliated, on 11 October the Governor-General declared an amnesty and wanted to stop the violence, 22 October was the day the unrest finally ended.
By this point the Dutch were responsible, but the relation between natives and Chinese pre-dates the Dutch colonial presence.

Moreover China actually wanted the VOC to apologize, Dutch colonies actually were possessions of trading companies during the time of the 1st Dutch Republic (the Batavian Republic is the 2nd Dutch Republic; so technically the current Dutch monarchy (though very strong links with the 1st Republic) is the 2nd Dutch monarchy (not counting Valois-Burgundy and Habsburg) with the Napoleonic kingdom of Holland being the 1st).
That might have been something the Lords Seventeen decided on and not just the local people in command. They're a business, so they might concede, but if there had been a chance to return the favour, then they wouldn't hesitate either.
It turned out, that they made right decision for their company IOTL.
 
According to Wikipedia, there were further massacres by the Dutch for at least three more years and there was plenty of strife for the next decade or so.

Could this may have even lead to war?
 
Does anyone know what exactly was the official position of the Manchus towards Chinese living overseas?I am getting conflicting information.I have read in some places that the Manchus regarded Chinese living overseas as little more than pirates or traitors who have abandoned their homeland.On the other hand,the Republic of Lan Fang was accepted as a tributary of the Qing Empire.

I think the Qing position on the overseas Chinese ethnic population largely determines what kind of response they might have towards any Dutch massacres.
 
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Does anyone know what exactly was the official position of the Manchus towards Chinese living overseas?I am getting conflicting information.I have read in some places that the Manchus regarded Chinese living overseas as little more than pirates or traitors who have abandoned their homeland.On the other hand,the Republic of Lan Fang was accepted as a tributary of the Qing Empire.

I think the Qing position on the overseas Chinese ethnic position largely determines what kind of response they might have towards any Dutch massacres.

Really hit and miss depending on who at court supported those overseas groups. For example I remember reading that Lan Fang had the support of least a few court officials and the fact they were willing to pay tribute to the Emperor helped as well. There never seemed to be an "official opinion" it was mostly opinions and those varied constantly.
 

PhilippeO

Banned
isn't Lan Fang accepted as tributary show that Qing consider them non-subject ? other tribute paying people are non-chinese after all.
 
isn't Lan Fang accepted as tributary show that Qing consider them non-subject ? other tribute paying people are non-chinese after all.

People from the tributaries were theoretically all subjects of the emperor.In theory,everyone on earth's a subject of the emperor.Difference between tributaries and non-tributaries was that those not from the tributaries didn't accept they were subjects of the Emperor of China whilst those from tributaries did(in theory of course).
 
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