After the Dutch in Batavia killed more than 10000 Chinese people, some people in the Qing government wanted to cut all trade with the Dutch until the Dutch apologized. IOTL this was not carried out.
What effects could there be if the Chinese had carried out an embargo against the Dutch in 1740?
It was a very disproportionate retaliation for killing 50 Dutch soldiers, and it took the Dutch Governor-General 11 days to reign in gangs, which refused to stop. As a timetable the Dutch were killed on 7 October, on 9 October Dutch, natives and Slaves retaliated, on 11 October the Governor-General declared an amnesty and wanted to stop the violence, 22 October was the day the unrest finally ended.
By this point the Dutch were responsible, but the relation between natives and Chinese pre-dates the Dutch colonial presence.
Moreover China actually wanted the VOC to apologize, Dutch colonies actually were possessions of trading companies during the time of the 1st Dutch Republic (the Batavian Republic is the 2nd Dutch Republic; so technically the current Dutch monarchy (though very strong links with the 1st Republic) is the 2nd Dutch monarchy (not counting Valois-Burgundy and Habsburg) with the Napoleonic kingdom of Holland being the 1st).
That might have been something the Lords Seventeen decided on and not just the local people in command. They're a business, so they might concede, but if there had been a chance to return the favour, then they wouldn't hesitate either.
It turned out, that they made right decision for their company IOTL.