WI Charles II of Navarre gets Burgundy instead of Jean II of France?

In 1361 at the age of 15 Philip I Duke of Burgundy fell sick with the plague and died before he could consummate his marriage to his second cousin Margaret. With his death, the direct descendants of all four of his grandparents also became extinct. Since there was no one heir to all his possessions, they were divided up once more amongst the families from which they had descended to Philip and King Jean II inherited the Duchy as his most direct heir...However the Duchy of Burgundy would have gone to Charles II of Navarre according to primogeniture, but went to John II of France according to proximity of bloodhttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proximity_of_blood. Despite the attempts of King Charles II of Navarre to overtake the Duchy of Burgundy, the settlement of the inheritance was peaceful. Later in 1364, John of France gave Burgundy to his son Philippe de Valois.
WI primogeniture was upheld and Burgundy went to Navarre instead of France? How is that altering History? Any thoughts?
 
Burgundy remains Semi Independent a little longer,-- France gets it by fighting several generations later.
 
If Navarre gets Burgundy it would have grown to a dominant power to the Iberian peninsula and a potential threat to France's soft underbelly...
 
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